Which one of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration ? (A) It occurs in chloroplast ( — NEET Chemistry Past Papers Chemistry Question

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Which one of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration ? (A) It occurs in chloroplast (B) It occurs in daytime only (C) It is a characterisitic of C plants (D) It is a characteristic of C plants 100. The formation of Acetyl Co-A from pyruvic acid is the result of its :- (1) Reduction (2) Dehydration (3) Phosphorylation (4) Oxidative decarboxylation SUBJECT : BIOLOGY + 2 + 2 4 3 MAJOR TEST SERIES - 1 9610ZMD800101250007 101. Which of these statements is incorrect? (1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix. (2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol. (3) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms. (4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane. 102. The RQ for proteins is : (1) 1 (2) 0.7 (3) 0.9 (4) 0 103. The fungus responsible for foolish seedling disease is: (1) Rhizopus (2) Gibberella fujikuroi (3) Aspergillus (4) Penicillium 104. Lag phase is characterised by: (1) Rapid cell division (2) Decline (3) Slow initial growth (4) No metabolism 105. Read the following statements and choose the correct option : A. The functions of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained by the testicular hormones (androgens). B. During menstrual phase, the primary follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle and simultaneously the endometrium of uterus regenerates through proliferation. C. During pregnancy all events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation. D. By the end of about 12 weeks (end of first trimester), the body of foetus is covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate, and eyelashes are formed. E. In males, the vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into epididymis located along the posterior surface of each testis. (1) A, C and E are correct but B and D is incorrect. (2) A, B, C and E are correct but D is incorrect. (3) B, C and D are correct but A and E are incorrect. (4) A, B and E are correct but C and D are incorrect. 106. The finger-like projections present on the infundibulum are called : (1) Antrum (2) Fimbriae (3) Villi (4) Folliculi 107. Assertion (A): The presence of an intact hymen is a reliable indicator of virginity. Reason (R): In some women, the hymen may remain intact even after sexual intercourse. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (3) A is false but R is true. (4) A is true but R is false. MAJOR TEST SERIES - 1 9610ZMD800101250007 108. Match the column I with column II : Column I Column II A. GnRH 1. Stimulate Leydig cells B. LH 2. Stimulate Sertoli cells C. FSH 3. Stimulate anterior pituitary D. Androgens 4. Stimulate spermatogenesis Choose the correct combination: (1) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 (2) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (3) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 109. Choose the incorrect pair : (1) Cervical caps and vaults — Barrier method (2) Multiload 375 and Saheli — Oral pills (3) Progestasert and LNG-20 — Hormone releasing IUD (4) Periodic abstinence and Lactational amenorrhea — Natural method 110. Read the following statements regarding Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) and choose the correct option: I. Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are also known as venereal diseases (VD) or reproductive tract infections (RTI). II. HIV infection is considered the least dangerous among all sexually transmitted infections. III. Genital herpes, hepatitis-B, and HIV infections are completely curable if detected early. IV. Hepatitis-B and HIV can be transmitted from an infected person to a healthy person by sharing injection needles. (1) Statements I and II are correct. (2) Statements I and IV are correct. (3) Statements II and III are correct. (4) Statements III and IV are correct. 111. The presence of placental mammals in North America (e.g., Placental Wolf) and environmentally similar marsupials in Australia (e.g., Tasmanian Wolf) is a striking example of: (1) Co-evolution (2) Divergent evolution (3) Convergent evolution (4) Artificial selection 112. Read the following statements regarding the embryological support for evolution and choose the correct option: Statement I: Ernst Haeckel proposed embryological support for evolution by observing embryonic stage common to all vertebrates that are absent in adults.. Statement II: Karl Ernst von Baer disapproved of Haeckel's proposal by carefully noting that embryos never pass through the adult stages of other animals. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 113. In the context of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a diploid population, what do the variables p and q represent? (1) The probability of mutations occurring in the population. (2) The frequencies of allele A and allele a. (3) The frequencies of genotypes AA and aa. (4) The total number of individuals in the population. MAJOR TEST SERIES - 1 9610ZMD800101250007 114. Read the following statements and choose the correct option: Statement I: Health is defined as the mere absence of disease in an individual. Statement II: When people are healthy, their increased efficiency at work brings about economic prosperity. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 115. Consider the following statements about infectious diseases and select the correct option: I. Dysentery, plague, and diphtheria are examples of bacterial diseases in humans. II. Haemophilus influenzae is a virus that causes one of the most infectious human ailments the common cold.. III. The common cold can be transmitted through contaminated objects such as pens, books, and computer keyboards. IV. Rhino viruses cause fluid accumulation in the alveoli leading to severe chills and fever. (1) Statements I and III are correct. (2) Statements II and IV are correct. (3) Statements I, II, and III are correct. (4) Statements III and IV are correct. 116. Ringworm infections are primarily caused by fungi belonging to which genera? (1) Candida, Aspergillus, Penicillium (2) Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton (3) Rhizopus, Mucor, Alternaria (4) Histoplasma, Blastomyces, Cryptococcus 117. Drug abuse is defined as: (1) Taking drugs exactly as prescribed. (2) Using drugs for non-medical purposes or in harmful amounts. (3) Using only hallucinogenic plants. (4) Using morphine after surgery. 118. Fill in the given blanks and mark the correct option: In some bacteria, the glycocalyx can be a thick, tough layer called a ______ which protects the bacterium from ______ and desiccation, while a loose sheath is called a ______ layer. (1) flagella, movement, mesosome (2) fimbriae, attachment, pili (3) capsule, phagocytosis, slime (4) cell wall, osmotic lysis, plasma 119. Fill in the given blanks and mark the correct option: Eukaryotic cilia and flagella possess a characteristic ______ arrangement of microtubules, with ______ central microtubules surrounded by ______ peripheral doublets. (1) 9+1, one, nine (2) 8+2, two, eight (3) 9+2, nine, two (4) 9+2, two, nine 120. Read the following statements and mark the correct option. Assertion (A): Pili and fimbriae help bacteria to become motile in streams. Reason (R): Unlike flagella, pili and fimbriae are surface structures primarily for attachment. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. (4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. MAJOR TEST SERIES - 1 9610ZMD800101250007 121. Read the following statements and mark the correct option. Assertion (A): The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. Reason (R): The plasma membrane is composed of a lipid bilayer with embedded proteins. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. (4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. 122. Cross-like configuration when non-sister chromatids of a bivalent come in contact during the first meiotic division are: (1) Chiasmata (2) Bivalents (3) Chromomeres (4) Centromeres 123. Which of the following statement is not true ? (1) Cell plate represents the middle lamella between the walls of two adjacent cells. (2) At the time of cytokinesis organelles like mitochondria and plastids, get distributed between the daughter cells. (3) Cytokinesis in plant cell is centrifugal and takes place by cell plate formation while in animal cells by furrowing or cleavage and it is centripetal. (4) M–phase last for 95% of the duration of cell cycle. 124. During meiotic division : (1) Two cycle of nuclear and cellular division occur. (2) Two turns of DNA replication occur. (3) Four diploid cells occur at end of meiosis-II. (4) Separation of homologous chromosomes occur at Anaphase-II. 125. Meiosis I is not having the one of the events out of the four given below :- (1) Bivalent chromosome align on the equatorial plate. (2) Crossing over occurs between the sister chromatid of homologus chromosomes. (3) Homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their centromers. (4) Recombination nodule is formed. 126. Which of the following lipids does not contain fatty acids as one of its components? (1) Lecithin (2) Cholesterol (3) Triglyceride (4) Diglyceride 127. What type of linkage is found between the fatty acid and glycerol in triglycerides, and what is the nature of this reaction? (1) Amide bond; Hydrolysis (2) Glycosidic bond; Condensation (3) Ester bond; Condensation (4) Peptide bond; Dehydration MAJOR TEST SERIES - 1 9610ZMD800101250007 128. Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of events in the formation of a nucleotide from its subcomponents? (1) Nitrogen base + phosphate → nucleoside → nucleotide (2) Sugar + phosphate → nucleoside → nucleotide (3) Nitrogen base + sugar → nucleoside; nucleoside + phosphate → nucleotide (4) Sugar + nitrogen base + phosphate → DNA directly 129. DNA of plasmid is : (1) double-stranded and circular (2) single-stranded and circular (3) double-stranded and linear (4) single-stranded and linear 130. The 'sticky' ends of a fragmented DNA molecule are created by : (1) calcium salts (2) endonuclease (3) unpaired bases (4) methyl groups 131. Which of the following is not a source of restriction endonuclease? (1) Haemophilus influenzae (2) Escherichia coli (3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (4) Bacillus amyloli 132. Which one of the following bacterium is used for the production of transgenic plants? (1) Escherichia coli (2) Pseudomonas (3) Staphylococcus aureus (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens 133. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice : (1) is completely resistant to all insect pests and diseases of paddy (2) gives high yield but has no charactristic aroma (3) does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones (4) give high yield and is rich in vitamin A 134. The genetic defect adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by: (1) Enzyme replacement therapy (2) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA (3) Administering adenosine deaminase activators (4) Introducing gene from bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages 135. Which of the following factors does NOT affect population density? (1) Natality (2) Mortality (3) Immigration (4) Color of organism 136. A species of bird lays eggs in another bird’s nest. The host bird incubates them. This interaction is: (1) Mutualism (2) Brood parasitism (3) Commensalism (4) Competition 137. Correct order of population growth phases in logistic growth: 1. Lag phase 2. Stationary phase 3. Exponential phase (1) 1 → 3 → 2 (2) 3 → 1 → 2 (3) 1 → 2 → 3 (4) 2 → 3 → 1 MAJOR TEST SERIES - 1 9610ZMD800101250007 138. If decomposers are removed from an ecosystem, what will happen first? (1) Increase in producers (2) Accumulation of dead organic matter (3) Increase in carnivores (4) Increase in oxygen 139. The term ‘standing state’ refers to: (1) Amount of biomass (2) Quantity of inorganic nutrients at a given time (3) Rate of productivity (4) Total solar energy 140. Which of the following organisms occupy more than one trophic level in a food web? (1) Producers (2) Omnivores (3) Decomposers (4) Herbivores 141. Which of the following represents in-situ conservation? (1) Zoo (2) Botanical garden (3) Seed bank (4) National park 142. Which group shows maximum species diversity? (1) Fishes (2) Birds (3) Insects (4) Amphibians 143. Consider the following statements regarding synovial joints: I. The articular cartilage covering the epiphysis is primarily composed of hyaline cartilage. II. Synovial fluid is secreted by chondrocytes present in articular cartilage. III. The fibrous capsule and synovial membrane together constitute the articular capsule. IV. Ligaments strengthen synovial joints but do not connect muscle to bone. V. Synovial cavity are fluid-filled sacs that reduce friction between tendon and bone. Choose the correct combination: (1) I, III and IV only (2) I, III, IV and V only (3) II and V only (4) I, II, III and V only 144. Which of the following differences between red and white muscle fibres is correctly matched? (1) Red fibres – Low myoglobin; White fibres – High mitochondrial density (2) Red fibres – Fatigue rapidly; White fibres – Sustain prolonged contraction (3) Red fibres – Predominantly aerobic; White fibres – Predominantly anaerobic (4) Red fibres – Less vascular; White fibres – Highly vascular 145. Match List I (Disorder) with List II (Primary Cause) and List III (Characteristic Feature): List I List II List III A. Gout