Angiosperms are an exceptionally large group of plants. What is the primary characteristic that dist — NEET Chemistry Past Papers Chemistry Question

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Angiosperms are an exceptionally large group of plants. What is the primary characteristic that distinguishes their seeds from those of gymnosperms? (A) Angiosperm seeds are naked and exposed. (B) Angiosperm seeds do not require fertilization to develop. (C) Angiosperm seeds are enclosed in fruits. (D) Angiosperm seeds are highly reduced and form pollen grains. SUBJECT : BIOLOGY MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250009 100. The gametophyte of a moss consists of two stages. From what structure does the secondary, "leafy stage" directly develop? (1) It develops directly from a germinating spore. (2) It develops from the secondary protonema as a lateral bud. (3) It develops from the zygote inside the archegonium. (4) It develops from the capsule after meiosis. 101. In gymnosperms, the multicellular female gametophyte is not free-living. Where is it retained? (1) Within the microsporangium. (2) Within the coralloid roots. (3) Within the megasporangium. (4) Within the male strobilus. 102. Mycorrhizae are associations between Fungi and: (1) Algae (2) Roots of higher plants (3) Insects (4) Stems of higher plants 103. A "Urn-shaped" age pyramid represents: (1) Growing population (2) Stable population (3) Declining population (4) Expanding population 104. Mac Arthur showed that five closely related species of warblers could coexist on the same tree due to: (1) Competitive exclusion (2) Resource partitioning (3) Parasitism (4) Mutualism 105. The "Standing Crop" of an ecosystem refers to: (1) Total living matter (biomass) at a particular time. (2) Total inorganic nutrients present in the soil. (3) The amount of CO2 fixed per unit area. (4) The rate of decomposition. 106. Which ecological pyramid is NEVER inverted? (1) Pyramid of Number (2) Pyramid of Biomass (3) Pyramid of Energy (4) All of these 107. Assertion (A): In a terrestrial ecosystem, DFC is the major conduit for energy flow. Reason (R): Decomposers have a very high biomass. (1) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation. (2) Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation. (3) A is true, R is false. (4) A is false, R is true. 108. Why does the Tropics (Equatorial region) have more biodiversity than Temperate regions? (i) Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years. (ii) Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant/predictable. (iii) More solar energy is available in the tropics, contributing to higher productivity. (1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only (3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii) MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250009 109. Sacred Groves are specially useful in: (1) Generating environmental awareness. (2) Preventing soil erosion. (3) Year-round flow of water in rivers. (4) Conserving rare and threatened species. 110. Assertion: Independent assortment occurs when genes are located on different chromosomes. Reason: Genes present on same chromosome tend to be inherited together. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason explains Assertion. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not explanation. (3) Assertion true Reason false. (4) Assertion false Reason true. 111. Statement I: Controlled crosses cannot be performed in humans. Statement II: Pedigree analysis is used to study inheritance in humans. (1) Both statements true (2) Both statements false (3) I true II false (4) I false II true 112. Which of the following statements are correct for humans ? A. All ova carry X chromosome. B. Sperms may carry X or Y chromosome. C. Male is heterogametic. D. Female is heterogametic. (1) A, B, C (2) A, C, D (3) B, C, D (4) A, B, D 113. Assertion (A): Only one strand of DNA acts as template in transcription. Reason (R): Transcription of both strands will form dsRNA and prevent translation. (1) Both true and reason explains A. (2) Both true but not explanation. (3) Assertion true reason false. (4) Assertion false reason true. 114. Statement I: 5′ capping is done on hnRNA. Statement II: Poly-A tail is added at 3′ end of hnRNA. (1) Both statements true (2) Both statements false (3) I true II false (4) I false II true 115. Find incorrect statement w.r.t. genetic code : (1) Code is nearly universal (2) Code is degenerate (3) Code has punctuation marks, like comma (4) Code is triplet 116. Which of the following are correct w.r.t. H.G.P. ? A. Only small percentage of genome codes for proteins. B. Y-chromosome has fewest genes. C. Repetitive DNA is present in genome. D. All DNA has known function. (1) A, B, C (2) A, C, D (3) B, C, D (4) A, B, D 117. The palindromes are groups of letters that form the________ when read in both directions forward and backward - (1) Different words (2) Same words (3) Alternative words (4) Both (1) and (2) MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250009 118. Having become an expert on gel electro- phoresis, you are asked to examine a gel for a colleague. Where would you find the smallest segments of DNA? (1) Near the positive electrode, farthest away from the wells. (2) Near the negative electrode, close to the wells. (3) Near the top, near the negative pole. (4) Near the middle; they tend to slow down after the first few minutes. 119. Which of the following has popularised the PCR (polymerase chain reactions)? (1) Easy availability of DNA template (2) Availability of synthetic primers (3) Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides (4) Availability of ‘thermostable’ DNA polymerase 120. Genetically engineered insulin contains - (1) A and B Chain linked together by disulphide bridges (2) A and C Chain linked together by disulphide bridges (3) B and C Chain linked together by disulphide bridges (4) A, B and C Chain linked together by disulphide bridges 121. Which of the following genes were introduced in cotton to protect it from cotton bollworms? (1) cry IAb (2) BtAc and BlAb (3) cry IAc and cry IIAb (4) cry IAb and cry IIAc 122. A probe which is a molecule used to locate specific sequences in a mixture of DNA or RNA molecules could be - (1) A single stranded RNA always (2) A single stranded DNA always (3) Single stranded RNA or ssDNA (4) Can be ssDNA but not ssRNA 123. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the morphology of the Fabaceae family? (1) Leaves are usually pinnately compound or simple. (2) Inflorescence is of the cymose type. (3) Flowers are zygomorphic and pentamerous. (4) The fruit is a legume with non-endospermic seeds. 124. Identify the correct chronology of floral parts from the outermost to the innermost whorl in a typical flower: (1) Calyx → Corolla → Gynoecium → Androecium (2) Corolla → Calyx → Androecium → Gynoecium (3) Calyx → Corolla → Androecium → Gynoecium (4) Gynoecium → Androecium → Corolla → Calyx 125. Which of the following statement regarding stipule is correct ? (1) The broad green part of the leaf. (2) The stalk that connects the leaf blade to the stem. (3) Two small leaf-like structures at the base of the leaf. (4) The point where the leaf is attached to the stem. MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250009 126. Assertion: Heartwood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support to the stem. Reason: It is characterized by the deposition of organic compounds like tannins, resins, and oils in the tracheary elements. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation. (3) Assertion is true, Reason is false. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. 127. Match the following anatomical features: Column A Column B A. Bulliform cells i. Dicot leaf B. Casparian strips ii. Monocot leaf C. Dorsiventral leaf iii. Dicot root endodermis D. Polyarch xylem iv. Monocot root (1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (3) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i 128. Statement I: In the thylakoid membrane, the protons are transported across the membrane into the lumen during the electron transport. Statement II: The primary acceptor of electrons is located towards the inner side of the membrane. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 129. How many ATP and NADPH + H molecules are required for the net synthesis of one molecule of Fructose-6-phosphate in a C plant? (1) 18 ATP, 12 NADPH (2) 12 ATP, 18 NADPH (3) 30 ATP, 12 NADPH (4) 18 ATP, 18 NADPH 130. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll? (1) Chlorophyll a shows maximum absorption in the green region of the spectrum. (2) The absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a and the action spectrum of photosynthesis overlap exactly. (3) Most of the photosynthesis takes place in the blue and red regions of the spectrum. (4) Carotenoids are the chief pigments associated with photosynthesis. 131. During the conversion of Succinyl-CoA to Succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesized. This reaction is an example of: (1) Oxidative phosphorylation (2) Photophosphorylation (3) Substrate level phosphorylation (4) Decarboxylation 132. Calculate the number of NADH molecules produced from 2 molecules of Acetyl CoA during the TCA cycle. (1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 8 3 MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250009 133. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding fermentation? (1) It accounts for only a partial breakdown of glucose. (2) The net gain of ATP is only two molecules for each molecule of glucose. (3) NADH is oxidized to NAD very vigorously in fermentation compared to aerobic respiration. (4) In alcohol fermentation, CO is released. 134. Name the hormone that was first isolated from human urine and is known to initiate rooting in stem cuttings. (1) Gibberellin (2) Abscisic acid (3) Auxin (4) Cytokinin 135. The process of "Vernalisation" refers to: (1) The effect of light duration on flowering. (2) The promotion of flowering by a period of low temperature. (3) The process of leaf senescence. (4) The growth of plants towards a light source. 136. Match the column : Column I Column II A. Coelom 1. Body cavity B. Segmentation 2. Repeated body units C. Symmetry 3. Arrangement of body parts D. Notochord 4. Dorsal supporting rod (1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (2) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (3) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 137. Cyclostomes differ from true fishes because they 1. Lack jaws 2. Possess circular mouth 3. Lack paired fins 4. Have gills (1) 1,2,3 only (2) 1,2,3,4 (3) 2 and 4 only (4) 1 and 4 only 138. Which vertebrate class shows moist glandular skin and cutaneous respiration? (1) Reptilia (2) Amphibia (3) Mammalia (4) Pisces 139. Glomerular filtration occurs mainly due to : (1) Osmotic pressure (2) Hydrostatic pressure of blood (3) Diffusion (4) Active transport 140. Counter-current mechanism is important for : (1) Diluting blood (2) Concentrating urine (3) Removing proteins (4) Producing hormones 141. Which epithelium protects body surfaces from abrasion? (1) Simple squamous (2) Stratified squamous (3) Cuboidal (4) Columnar 142. Which fibre provides maximum tensile strength? (1) Collagen fibres (2) Elastic fibres (3) Reticular fibres (4) Keratin fibres + 2 MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250009 143. Choose the correct statements for frog : 1. Frog liver produces bile. 2. Pancreas secretes digestive enzymes. 3. Medulla controls involuntary functions. 4. Pituitary regulates endocrine glands. (1) 1,2,3 only (2) 1,2,3,4 (3) 1 and 3 only (4) 2 and 4 only 144. Choose the correct statements regarding cockroach : 1. Respiratory system consists of tracheae. 2. Spiracles regulate air flow. 3. Circulatory system carries oxygen. 4. Nervous system includes segmental ganglia. (1) 1,2,4 only (2) 1,3,4 only (3) 2 and 3 only (4) All correct 145. Malleus is a part of - (1) Fore limbs of vertebrates (2) Reproductive organs of cockroach (3) Auditory ossicles of middle ear of human (4) Skull of frog 146. The cup-shaped cavity for the articulation of the head of the femur is called (1) Glenoid cavity (2) Acetabulum (3) Obturator (4) Sigmoid notch 147. Which of the following muscle gets into fatigue very early? (1) Skeletal muscle (2) Smooth muscle (3) Cardiac muscle (4) All of these 148. In man and mammals, air passes from outside into the lungs through (1) nasal cavity → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchioles → bronchi → alveoli (2) nasal cavity → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli (3) nasal cavity → larynx → pharynx → trachea → bronchi → alveoli (4) nasal cavity → larynx → pharynx → trachea → bronchioles → alveoli 149. The urge to inhale in humans results from (1) rising pCO (2) rising pO (3) falling pCO (4) falling pO 150. In fishes, the blood circulation is represented as The given flow of blood indicates that it is a (1) Double circulation (2) Single circulation (3) Incomplete single circulation (4) Incomplete double circulation 2 2 2 2 MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250009 151. Which of the following statements is not true? (1) Heart is ectodermal in origin. (2) In human beings the heart is situated in the thoracic cavity, in between the two lungs slightly tilted to the left. (3) Human heart has the size of a clenched fist. (4) Heart is protected by a double walled membranous bag (pericardium) with pericardial fluid. 152. Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Somatic nervous system- Conducts impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles. (ii) Autonomic nervous system- Conduct impulses from CNS to internal organ muscles. (iii) Central nervous system- Consists of brain and spinal cord (iv) Peripheral nervous system- Consists of nerves carrying impulses to brain and spinal cord only (1) Only (ii) and (iii) (2) Only (iii) and (iv) (3) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) All of these 153. Which of the following statements is correct? (i) Unipolar neuron found usually in the embryonic stage. (ii) Unmyelinated nerve fibres is enclosed by a Schwann cell. (iii) Dendrites transmit impulses towards the cell body. (iv) Visceral nervous system is the part of the central nervous system. (1) (i), and (ii) only (2) (ii), and (iiii) only (3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only 154. Identify A to F in the given figure. (1) A–Hypothalamus, B–Pineal, C–Thymus, D–Adrenal, E–Pituitary, F–Thyroid and parathyroid (2) A–Pituitary, B–Pineal, C–Hypothalamus, D–Thyroid and parathyroid, E– Thymus, F–Adrenal (3) A–Thymus, B–Pituitary, C–Thyroid and parathyroid, D–Pineal, E–Hypothalamus, F–Adrenal (4) A–Pineal, B–Thyroid and parathyroid, C– Pituitary, D–Hypothalamus, E–Adrenal, F–Pineal 155. The following organs produce hormones except : (1) GIT (2) Liver and kidney (3) heart (4) urinary bladder 156. Select the incorrect statement from following: (1) Invertebrates possess very simple endocrine system. (2) Anterior pituitary is under control of hypothalamus by portal system. (3) Posterior pituitary is under direct neural regulation of hypothalamus. (4) Hypothalamus secretes only releasing hormones. MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250009 157. Examine the statements regarding AIDS and HIV: I. HIV is a retrovirus that possesses an RNA genome. II. The virus enters macrophages, which act as an HIV factory. III. There is a progressive increase in the number of Helper T-lymphocytes. IV. The time-lag between infection and appearance of symptoms can vary from months to years. (1) Statements I, II, and IV are correct (2) Statements I and III are correct (3) Statements II and III are correct (4) All statements are correct 158. Assertion (A): Metagenesis is the most feared property of malignant tumors. Reason (R): Benign tumor are localized. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false. (4) A is false but R is true. 159. Which drug is extracted from the latex of the poppy plant Papaver somniferum? (1) Cocaine (2) Morphine (3) Marijuana (4) Hashish 160. Match the column : Column I (Barrier of Innate Immunity) Column II (Example) A. Physical Barrier I. Interferons B. Physiological Barrier II. Macrophages C. Cellular Barrier III. Acid in the stomach D. Cytokine Barrier IV. Skin (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 161. Match the historical milestones in evolutionary biology: Column I Column II A. Philosophie Zoologique i. Charles Darwin B. Origin of Species ii. Thomas Malthus C. Essay on Population iii. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck D. HMS Beagle iv. Voyage for Natural Selection (1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv (2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv (3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv 162. Prehistoric cave art developed about: (1) 18,000 years ago (2) 10,000 years ago (3) 75,000 years ago (4) 40,000 years ago MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250009 163. According to the theory of spontaneous generation (Abiogenesis), life originated from: (1) Pre-existing life only. (2) Non-living, decaying matter. (3) Extraterrestrial units called "panspermia." (4) The fusion of heavy metals in the earth's core. 164. Identify the correct statement regarding the chromosome number in human gametogenesis: (1) Primary spermatocytes and secondary oocytes are both diploid. (2) Spermatogonia and spermatids are both diploid. (3) Oogonia and secondary oocytes are both haploid. (4) Secondary spermatocytes and spermatids are both haploid. 165. Match the following terms with their definitions: A. Menarche i. Temporary cessation of menstruation during pregnancy B. Menopause ii. First menstruation at puberty. C. Amenorrhea iii. Permanent cessation of menstruation around age 50. (1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii (3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii (4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i 166. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Luteal phase of the menstrual cycle? (1) Transformation of the remaining Graafian follicle into the corpus luteum. (2) Regeneration of the lost endometrium through proliferation. (3) High levels of progesterone secretion. (4) Preparation of the uterus for implantation of a fertilized egg. 167. During the initiation of parturition, the "fetal ejection reflex" is triggered by: (1) The release of prolactin from the maternal pituitary. (2) Signals originating from the fully developed fetus and the placenta. (3) The sudden increase in maternal blood pressure. (4) The secretion of estrogen and progesterone by the corpus luteum. 168. Which of the following statements are correct regarding reproductive health initiatives and diagnostics? (A) Family planning programs were initiated in India in 1951. (B) RCH (Reproductive and Child Health Care) programs aim to create awareness about reproduction-related aspects. (C) MTP is a process used to check the chromosomal pattern of cells in the amniotic fluid. (D) Statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex- determination is not required to maintain a healthy child sex ratio. Choose the most appropriate answer: (1) (A), (B), and (C) only (2) (B), (C), and (D) only (3) (A) and (B) only (4) (A), (B), and (D) only 169. Assertion (A): Amniocentesis is often misused for foetal sex determination. Reason (R): It can detect genetic disorders like Down syndrome, Haemophilia, and Sickle-cell anaemia. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false. (4) A is false but R is true. MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250009 170. Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway? (1) Plasmodesmata (2) Plastoquinones (3) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Plasmalemma 171. Nucleolus is - (1) Rounded structure found in cytoplasm near nucleus. (2) Rounded structure inside nucleus and having rRNA. (3) Rod-shaped structure in cytoplasm near the nucleus. (4) None of the above. 172. Satellite means - (1) Terminal part of the chromosome beyond secondary constriction. (2) Terminal part of the chromosome beyond primary constriction. (3) Terminal part of chromosome beyond tertiary constriction. (4) None of the above 173. Both the membranes of mitochondrion are : (1) Structurally different but functionally similar. (2) Structurally as well as functionally different. (3) Structurally similar but functionally different. (4) Structurally and functionally similar. 174. If a cell in G phase has 20 chromosome (chromatin) and 20 Pg DNA in nucleus then which one option is correct for chromosomes and DNA in cell in given diagrams (A-D) :- (1) A-20, 20 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 40 ; D-20, 20 respectively (2) A-20, 40 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 40 ; D-10, 20 respectively (3) A-20, 40 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 20 ; D-10, 20 respectively (4) A-20, 20 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 20 ; D-10, 20 respectively 175. Study the given diagram and mark the correct option. (1) Cells in this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate : F (2) DNA replicates in nucleus and centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm : A (3) Constitutes more than 95% duration of cell cycle : D and E (4) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication : C 176. Choose the incorrect statement :- (A) Cells in G stage are metabolically inactive. (B) Meiosis involves two cycle of DNA replication (C) Mitosis restores the nucleo–cytoplasmic ratio of cells (D) Duration of cell cycle may vary from organism to organism and also from cell to cell. Options :- (1) A and C (2) C and D (3) B and C (4) A and B 1 0 MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250009 177. Cytokinesis in an animal cell takes place by ____ method in _____ direction, while in a plant cell it occur by ____ method _____ direction. (1) Furrowing, centrifugal, cell plate, centripetal (2) Furrowing, centripetal, cell plate, centrifugal (3) Cell plate, centripetal, furrowing, centripetal (4) Cell plate, centripetal, furrowing, centrifugal 178. Read the following statement. (a) Rubber, gums, scents, spices are secondary metabolites (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid found in cell membrane (c) Chitin is a complex polysaccharide and is a polymer of fructose. (d) In a polysaccharide the individual monosaccharides are linked by peptide bond. How many of the above is/are incorrect statement. (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One 179. How many of the following are reducing carbohydrate Glucose, Galactose, Sucrose, Lactose, Maltose, Fructose (1) Five (2) Three (3) Two (4) Four 180. How many statement are correct regarding with α helix structure of protein :- (1) It is maintained by hydrogen bond between amino acid side chain (2) The side chain of amino acid in α-helix is out side of the helix (3) It can be stabalized by hydrogen bond between amide hydrogen and amide oxygen in polypeptide chain (1) One (2) two (3) three (4) four MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250009 MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250009