Which of the following statements regarding lichens is incorrect? (A) Lichens are symbiotic, mutuall — NEET Chemistry Past Papers Chemistry Question

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Which of the following statements regarding lichens is incorrect? (A) Lichens are symbiotic, mutually useful associations between algae and fungi. (B) The algal component is known as the phycobiont and is autotrophic. (C) The fungal component is known as the mycobiont and is heterotrophic. (D) Fungi prepare food for algae, while algae provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients. 100. Statement I: Natural classification is based on natural affinities among organisms. Statement II: Phylogenetic classification system is based on evolutionary relationships. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 101. Match the Kingdom in Column I with its Cell Type in Column II based on the Five Kingdom Classification: Column-I Column-II (A) Monera (1) Eukaryotic (B) Protista (2) Prokaryotic (C) Fungi (1) A-2, B-1, C-1 (2) A-1, B-2, C-1 (3) A-2, B-2, C-1 (4) A-1, B-1, C-2 MAJOR TEST SERIES Phase- 1 9610ZMD800101250014 102. How many of the following are common members of red algae (Rhodophyceae)? Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gracilaria, Gelidium, Fucus, Dictyota (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Six 103. Which of the following statements about brown algae (Phaeophyceae) is incorrect? (1) They possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophylls. (2) Asexual reproduction in most brown algae is by non-motile spores. (3) The vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall usually covered on the outside by a gelatinous coating of algin. (4) The plant body is usually attached to the substratum by a holdfast. 104. Assertion (A): In bryophytes, the sporophyte is not free-living. Reason (R): The sporophyte is attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derives nourishment from it. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false. (4) Both A and R are false. 105. Which blood groups have anti-A antibodies? 1. A 2. B 3. AB 4. O (1) 2,4 (2) 1,3 (3) 1,2 (4) 3,4 106. Which is true for anti-Rh antibodies administration? (1) Given to Rh+ve mother (2) After delivery of first child (3) Prevents erythroblastosis in first pregnancy (4) Administered to foetus 107. Statement I: Asthma causes wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi. Statement II: It is a chronic disorder like emphysema. (1) Both statements are true (2) Both statements are false (3) Statement I is true but II false (4) Statement II is true but I false 108. How much CO transport from plasma? (1) 20% approx (2) 3% approx (3) 77% approx (4) 97% approx 109. Hormone receptors on cell membrane generate: (1) Gene expression (2) Second messengers (3) Antibodies (4) Enzymes 110. Assertion (A): Somatostatin inhibits growth hormone. Reason (R): It is a hypothalamic inhibiting hormone. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true 2 MAJOR TEST SERIES Phase- 1 9610ZMD800101250014 111. Statement I: Thymosins provide immunity. Statement II: Thymus degenerates in old age. (1) Both statements are true (2) Both statements are false (3) statement I is true but II false (4) statement II is true but I false 112. Where does ciliary movement occur in the human body? (1) In limbs (2) In internal tubular organs like trachea (3) In skeletal muscles (4) In cardiac muscles 113. How many cranial bones are there in the skull? (1) 8 (2) 14 (3) 22 (4) 3 114. Which bone is the longest in the human body? (1) Humerus (2) Femur (3) Tibia (4) Radius 115. Action potential is another name for (1) Resting potential (2) Nerve impulse (3) Threshold stimulus (4) Synaptic potential 116. The centre for hunger and thirst is located in (1) Thalamus (2) Hypothalamus (3) Pons (4) Medulla 117. Assertion: Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming. Reason: Penicillin is produced by bacteria. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true 118. Statement I: Echinoderms are exclusively marine and triploblastic. Statement II: They have water vascular system for locomotion only. (1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 119. Choanocytes (collar cells) line the spongocoel and help in water circulation and food capture in: (1) Coelenterata (2) Porifera (3) Ctenophora (4) Aschelminthes 120. Book lungs or book gills are respiratory organs in: (1) Insects (2) Arachnids and some crustaceans (3) Annelids (4) Molluscs MAJOR TEST SERIES Phase- 1 9610ZMD800101250014 121. Statement I: Epithelial cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix. Statement II: They have abundant intercellular matrix. (1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 122. The tissue that stores fat, acts as insulator and shock absorber is: (1) Areolar tissue (2) Adipose tissue (3) Hyaline cartilage (4) Blood 123. Assertion: Hepatic caeca are present in cockroach. Reason : They increase surface area for absorption. (1) Both A and R true, R explains A (2) Both A and R true, R does not explain A (3) A true, R false (4) A false, R true 124. Match the columns regarding frog morphology: Column I Column II A. Cloaca (i) Male frog (grip) B. Nuptial pad (ii) Swimming C. Vocal sacs (iii) Male frog (sound) D. Webbed feet (iv) Common chamber in frog (1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) (2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii) (3) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii) (4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i) 125. Juxta-glomerular apparatus (JGA) is involved in: (1) Filtration of blood (2) Regulation of GFR through renin release (3) Reabsorption of glucose (4) Secretion of urea 126. Uricotelism is found in: (1) Bony fishes (2) Mammals (3) Birds and reptiles (4) Aquatic amphibians 127. Study the following flowchart representing the Endomembrane System and identify the correct labels for A, B, C, and D. A → Transition Vesicle → B → Cisternae → D → Secretory Vesicle → Plasma Membrane Which of the following is correct regarding the components? (1) A is the Smooth ER; D is the maturing face of the Golgi. (2) B is the concave face; D is the convex face of the Golgi. (3) B is the forming face; D is the maturing face of the Golgi. (4) A synthesizes steroidal hormones; D is where glycosylation begins. 128. Assertion (A): The content of the nucleolus is continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm. Reason (R): The nucleolus is not a membrane- bound structure and is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true but (R) is false. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false. MAJOR TEST SERIES Phase- 1 9610ZMD800101250014 129. Match the specialized structures in Column I with their specific protein composition or feature in Column II. Column I Column II (p) Axoneme (i) 9 + 0 arrangement of triplets (q) Centriole (ii) 9 + 2 arrangement of doublets (r) F0-F1 Particles (iii) Contains Hydrolytic enzymes (s) Lysosome (iv) Found on the Cristae (1) p-(ii), q-(i), r-(iv), s-(iii) (2) p-(i), q-(ii), r-(iv), s-(iii) (3) p-(ii), q-(i), r-(iii), s-(iv) (4) p-(iv), q-(i), r-(ii), s-(iii) 130. Read the following five statements regarding cell organelles and identify how many are incorrect. 1. The outer membrane of the nucleus usually remains continuous with the ER and also bears ribosomes on it. 2. The Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum is the major site for the synthesis of proteins. 3. The middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium pectate which holds the different neighbouring cells together. 4. Both Cilium and Flagellum emerge from centriole-like structures called basal bodies. 5. Gas vacuoles are found in all eukaryotic cells to provide buoyancy. (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four 131. Read the following four statements regarding the S- phase of the cell cycle and select the correct option: I. DNA replication occurs in the nucleus. II. The amount of DNA per cell doubles from 2C to 4C. III. The chromosome number increases from 2n to 4n. IV. Centriole duplication occurs in the cytoplasm. (1) Statements I and II are correct, but III and IV are incorrect. (2) Statements I, II, and IV are correct. (3) Statements I, II, and III are correct. (4) All statements are correct. 132. How many of the following statements are correct regarding Meiosis I: I. Synapsis occurs during Zygotene. II. Crossing over is an enzyme-mediated process involving Recombinase. III. Homologous chromosomes separate during Anaphase I while sister chromatids remain associated. IV. The bivalents align on the equatorial plate during Metaphase II. (1) Four (2) Two (3) Three (4) One 133. Consider the following statements about the M- phase and identify the incorrect ones: I. Prophase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material. II. In Anaphase, centromeres split and chromatids separate. III. Small disc-shaped structures at the surface of centromeres are called kinetochores. IV. Cytokinesis in plant cells is achieved by the formation of a furrow in the plasma membrane. (1) Statements II and IV are incorrect. (2) Statements I and III are incorrect. (3) Only statement IV is incorrect. (4) Only statement II is incorrect. MAJOR TEST SERIES Phase- 1 9610ZMD800101250014 134. Analyze these statements regarding the Regulation of Cell Cycle: I. Cells in the G ​ stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate. II. The transition from G ​ to S phase is a major checkpoint. III. Heart cells in adult animals do not appear to exhibit division. IV. G phase is characterized by the synthesis of proteins like tubulin for spindle formation. (1) All statements are correct. (2) Only I and III are correct. (3) Statements I, II, and III are correct. (4) Only IV is incorrect. 135. Which of the following is the correct representation of the "Catalytic Cycle" of an enzyme-substrate interaction? (1) E + S → ES → E-P → E + P (2) E + S ⇌ ES → EP → E + P (3) E + P → EP → ES → E + S (4) S + P → SP → E → E + P 136. In a reaction inhibited by a non-competitive inhibitor, if the concentration of the substrate is doubled, what happens to the degree of inhibition? (1) It decreases because more substrate out- competes the inhibitor. (2) It remains the same because the inhibitor binds to an allosteric site. (3) It increases because the enzyme-substrate complex is more unstable. (4) The reaction velocity (Vmax) will eventually reach its original uninhibited value. 137. In a 100 base pair long DNA duplex, there are 40 Guanine bases. Calculate the total number of hydrogen bonds in this DNA segment. (1) 240 (2) 260 (3) 300 (4) 200 138. Read the following statements: (a) It is a small, pea-sized paired gland located inferior to the prostate. (b) Its duct opens into the membranous urethra. (c) It is the male homologue to the Bartholin’s gland in females. (d) Its secretion neutralizes acidity in the urethra. In the above statements, ‘it’ refers to: (1) Seminal vesicle (2) Prostate gland (3) Bulbourethral gland (4) Perineal gland 139. Which of the following correctly identifies the reproductive milestones in a human female? I. Menarche is the first menstruation and is considered a marker of puberty. II. Menopause is the permanent stopping of menstruation, usually occurring around age 50. III. Menstrual cycle permanently stops after pregnancy. (1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III (3) Only I and III (4) I, II, and III 140. Monozygotic twins are produced when: (1) Two different ova are fertilized by two different sperm simultaneously. (2) A single zygote undergoes cleavage and the resulting blastomeres fully separate into two independent embryos. (3) One egg is fertilized by two sperm (dispermy), leading to embryo splitting. (4) Two polar bodies are fertilized by a single sperm. 0 1 2​ MAJOR TEST SERIES Phase- 1 9610ZMD800101250014 141. Assertion (A): LH (Luteinizing Hormone) is often referred to as ICSH (Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone) in males. Reason (R): LH acts specifically on the Leydig cells, which are located in the interstitial spaces, and stimulates the synthesis and secretion of androgens. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false but (R) is true. 142. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) plays a significant role in population control, though it is not meant for that purpose. Annually, the number of MTPs performed worldwide is approximately: (1) 1/10th of the total conceived pregnancies. (2) 1/5th of the total conceived pregnancies. (3) 1/2 of the total conceived pregnancies. (4) 1/3rd of the total conceived pregnancies. 143. Which of the following ART procedures involves 'In-Vivo' fertilization? (1) IVF-ET (In-Vitro Fertilization – Embryo Transfer) (2) ICSI (Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection) (3) ZIFT (Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer) (4) GIFT (Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer) 144. Read the following statements: (a) It is obtained by the acetylation of morphine. (b) The raw material is extracted from the latex of Papaver somniferum. (c) It is a potent depressant that slows down body functions. (d) It is generally taken by snorting or injection. The drug described in the statements above is: (1) Cannabinoids (2) Heroin (3) Cocaine (4) Crack 145. Match the following antibodies with their most defining characteristic: (a) IgG — (i) Largest in size (Pentamer), first to appear during infection. (b) IgA — (ii) Involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections. (c) IgM — (iii) Most abundant (75-80%), can cross the placenta. (d) IgE — (iv) Secretory antibody found in saliva and colostrum. Select the correct match for IgA: (1) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii (2) a–i, b–iii, c–ii, d–iv (3) a–iv, b–ii, c–iii, d–i (4) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii 146. Assertion (A): A patient who has received a corneal transplant must usually take immunosuppressive drugs for a significant period. Reason (R): The immune system uses cell- mediated immunity to distinguish "self" from "non-self" and may attack the foreign graft. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false but (R) is true. MAJOR TEST SERIES Phase- 1 9610ZMD800101250014 147. Which of the following correctly defines antigens and antibodies? (1) Antigens are foreign molecules recognized by the immune system and trigger antibody production; antibodies are specialized glycoproteins produced by plasma cells that bind specifically to antigens and mediate immune defense. (2) Antigens are molecules produced by the body to fight infections; antibodies are foreign substances that trigger immune responses. (3) Antibodies are types of antigens found in vaccines; antigens are protective proteins produced by the immune system. (4) Antigens and antibodies are both toxic molecules that damage pathogens directly without immune involvement. 148. Miller and Urey performed an experiment to simulate the origin of life. They used a mixture of gases NH and CH along with: (1) CO and O (2) N and O (3) O and H O (4) H O and H 149. Which of the following observations by Karl Ernst von Baer led to the rejection of Ernst Haeckel's "Biogenetic Law"? (1) The presence of pharyngeal gill slits in the human embryo signifies a functional fish stage in human development. (2) Embryos of different vertebrates never pass through the adult stages of other vertebrates. (3) The human embryo possesses a tail that is functionally identical to a monkey's tail. (4) Development of an individual always mirrors the complete adult evolutionary history of its ancestors. 150. "Snakes evolved from limbed ancestors but lost their legs over generations because they stopped using them for movement in narrow crevices." This statement is a classic example of which evolutionary theory? (1) Darwinism (Natural Selection) (2) Lamarckism (Inheritance of Acquired Characters) (3) Mutation Theory (Saltation) (4) Modern Synthetic Theory 151. Which of the following options represents the correct sequence of steps in somatic hybridization? (1) Isolation of plant cells → Fusion of protoplasts from different plant varieties → Production of somatic hybrids → Digestion of cell wall. (2) Isolation of plant cells → Digestion of cell wall → Fusion of protoplasts from different plant varieties → Production of somatic hybrids. (3) Isolation of plant cells → Fusion of protoplasts from different plant varieties → Digestion of cell wall → Production of somatic hybrids. (4) Isolation of plant cells → Fusion of protoplasts from different plant varieties → Production of somatic hybrids. 152. Biotechnology uses techniques to alter chemistry of - (1) Protein & Lipid (2) Protein & RNA (3) Lipid & DNA (4) RNA & DNA 3 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 MAJOR TEST SERIES Phase- 1 9610ZMD800101250014 153. First recombinant DNA was made by - (1) Herbert Cohen & Stanley Boyer, 1972 (2) Stanley Cohen & Herbert Boyer, 1992 (3) Stanley Cohen & Herbert Boyer, 1972 (4) Herbert Cohen & Stanley Boyer, 1992 154. Choose the correct sequence to be followed to enable bacteria to take up rDNA. (i) Treating with divalent cation. (ii) Heat shock (42ºC). (iii) Incubating on ice. (1) i-ii-iii-ii (2) i-iii-ii-iii (3) ii-iii-i-ii (4) iii-ii-i-iii 155. The first transgenic cow, Rosie produced - (1) Human calcium enriched milk (2.4 g/l) (2) Human protein enriched milk (2.4 g/l) (3) Human calcium enriched milk (2.6 g/l) (4) Human protein enriched milk (2.8 g/l) 156. RNAi take place in all ____ organisms as method of ____. (1) Prokaryotes, insect resistant (2) Eukaryotes, insect resistant (3) Eukaryotes, cellular defence (4) Prokaryotes, cellular defence 157. Consider the following statements: I. Natality increases population size II. Mortality decreases population size III. Immigration decreases population size IV. Emigration decreases population size (1) I, II and IV (2) I and III only (3) II and III only (4) I, II, III and IV 158. Assertion (A): Population density need not necessarily be measured in numbers only. Reason (R): Population density reflects the number of individuals per unit area. (1) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation (2) Both true, but R not explanation (3) A true, R false (4) A false, R true 159. Match the Columns - Column I Column II A. Mutualism 1. Both species are harmed B. Commensalism 2. One species benefits, other species unaffected C. Parasitism 3. One species benefits, other species harmed D. Competition 4. Both species are benefited (1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (2) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 (3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (4) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 160. Producers have 10,000 J of energy. According to 10% law, energy at secondary consumers is: (1) 1000 J (2) 100 J (3) 10 J (4) 1 J 161. In an aquatic ecosystem, pyramid of biomass is inverted because: (1) Producers have short lifespan (2) Producers have low biomass but high turnover (3) Consumers have higher reproduction (4) Energy flow is reversed MAJOR TEST SERIES Phase- 1 9610ZMD800101250014 162. Consider the following statements: I. Decomposition involves fragmentation, leaching, catabolism. II. Humification leads to formation of humus. III. Mineralization releases inorganic nutrients. IV. Decomposition occurs faster in low temperature. Choose correct statements- (1) I, II and III (2) I and IV only (3) II and III only (4) I, II, III and IV 163. Consider the following statements: I. Species richness increases with area, but only upto a limit. II. Species-area relationship is linear on log-log scale. III. Value of slope (Z) is generally between 0.1– 0.2. IV. Z value is always greater than 1 for a small r̥ egion. Choose the correct statements- (1) I, II and III (2) I and IV only (3) II and III only (4) I, II, III and IV 164. Who proposed the rivet popper hypothesis? (1) Charles Darwin (2) Paul Ehrlich (3) Odum (4) Mendel 165. Assertion: The ovary is half-inferior in flowers of plum, rose, and peach. Reason: In perigynous flowers, the margin of thalamus grows upward enclosing the ovary completely and getting fused with it. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. 166. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (1) In Calotropis, aestivation is valvate. (2) In pea, the stamens are diadelphous. (3) In silk cotton, leaves are pinnately compound. (4) In ginger, the underground stem is a rhizome. 167. Match the following columns: Column I Column II A. Underground stem i. Euphorbia B. Stem tendril ii. Potato C. Fleshy cylindrical stem iii. Cucumber D. Flattened stem iv. Opuntia (1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (3) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i 168. Statement I: In the dicot stem, the cells of the pericycle are present on the inner side of the endodermis and above the phloem in the form of semi-lunar patches of sclerenchyma. Statement II: In the monocot stem, vascular bundles are conjoint, open, and have a water- containing cavity. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. MAJOR TEST SERIES Phase- 1 9610ZMD800101250014 169. Identify the correct statement regarding the anatomy of a monocotyledonous root: (1) Pith is small and inconspicuous (2) Vascular bundles are usually 2 to 4. (3) Secondary growth is highly prominent (4) There are usually more than six xylem bundles (polyarch). 170. How many total ATP molecules are generated (gross) by a C plant to fix 6 molecules of CO ? (1) 18 ATP (2) 30 ATP (3) 12 ATP (4) 24 ATP 171. Identify the correct sequence of electron flow: (1) PS II → Pheophytin → ETS → PS I → Ferredoxin → NADP (2) PS I → ETS → PS II → NADP (3) NADP → PS II → ETS → PS I (4) PS II → PS I → ETS → NADP 172. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (1) The stroma lamellae membranes lack PS II as well as NADP reductase enzyme. (2) In C plants, the bundle sheath cells are rich in RuBisCO but lack PEPcase. (3) The C acid OAA is formed in the bundle sheath cells. (4) Water splitting complex is associated with the PS II. 173. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following stages in the Citric Acid Cycle? (A) Formation of α-ketoglutaric acid. (B) Condensation of acetyl group with OAA. (C) Formation of Succinyl-CoA. (D) Formation of Malic acid. (1) B → A → C → D (2) A → B → C → D (3) B → C → A → D (4) D → B → A → C 174. How many NADH + H molecules are produced during the complete oxidation of one molecule of Acetyl CoA in the TCA cycle? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 175. Select the correct statement concerning plant respiration: (1) In fermentation, there is a net gain of 7 ATP for each molecule of glucose. (2) Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to the outer surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane (3) The energy released by oxidation in respiration is directly used for cell metabolism. (4) Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. 176. Calculate the growth rate (Arithmetic) if a root elongates from 5 cm to 15 cm in 5 hours. (1) 10 cm/hr (2) 5 cm/hr (3) 2 cm/hr (4) 3 cm/hr 177. Which of the following is the correct function of Gibberellic Acid (GA )? (1) To delay senescence in fruits like apple. (2) To induce dormancy in seeds. (3) To promote fruit ripening in tomatoes. (4) To induce stomatal closure under stress. 178. Which of the following is commonly found in Citrus and Mangifera ? (1) Apospory (2) Apogamy (3) Diplospory (4) Adventive embryony 4 2 + + + + 4 4 + 3 MAJOR TEST SERIES Phase- 1 9610ZMD800101250014 179. Among the terms listed choose below, those that are not technically correct names for a floral whorl : (i) Androecium (ii) Carpel (iii) Corolla (iv) Sepal (1) (i) and (iv) (2) (iii) and (iv) (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (ii) 180. Following four statements are given here select incorrect statement ? (1) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoceium is found in Michelia (2) Apple and strawberry are example of false fruits (3) Perispermic seeds are found in Piper nigrum (4) Castor and barley are examples of non- endospermic seeds. MAJOR TEST SERIES Phase- 1 9610ZMD800101250014 MAJOR TEST SERIES Phase- 1 9610ZMD800101250014