According to the universal rules of binomial nomenclature, which of the following statements is inco — NEET Chemistry Past Papers Chemistry Question

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According to the universal rules of binomial nomenclature, which of the following statements is incorrect? (A) Biological names are generally in Latin and written in italics. (B) The first word denotes the specific epithet and the second word denotes the genus. (C) Both words in a biological name are separately underlined when handwritten. (D) The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter. 100. Match the shape of the bacteria in Column I with its correct category in Column II: Column I Column II i. Spherical a. Vibrium ii. Rod-shaped b. Spirillum iii. Comma-shaped c. Coccus iv. Spiral d. Bacillus (1) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b (2) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a (3) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a (4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d SUBJECT : BIOLOGY t + 1 t t + 1 t t + 1 t t + 1 t MAJOR TEST SERIES PHASE- 1 9610ZMD800101250008 101. Which of the following components makes the cell walls of diatoms virtually indestructible? (1) Cellulose plates (2) Chitin (3) Silica (4) Pectose 102. Which member of the Ascomycetes class of fungi is extensively used in biochemical and genetic work? (1) Penicillium (2) Puccinia (3) Neurospora (4) Ustilago 103. Why are bryophytes commonly referred to as the "amphibians of the plant kingdom"? (1) Because they are the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues. (2) Because they can live in soil but depend on water for sexual reproduction. (3) Because they produce seeds that are entirely naked. (4) Because they only grow in entirely aquatic marine environments. 104. The red colour of the algae belonging to Rhodophyceae is predominantly due to the presence of which pigment? (1) Fucoxanthin (2) Chlorophyll b (3) r-phycoerythrin (4) Chlorophyll c 105. In Gymnosperms, which genus features specialized small roots called "coralloid roots" that are associated with nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria? (1) Pinus (2) Cycas (3) Cedrus (4) Ginkgo 106. What is the final product after anaerobic digestion in sewage treatment plant? (1) Biogas and digested sludge (2) Activated sludge only (3) Primary effluent (4) Clean water 107. Consider the following: 1. Renal cortex contains renal corpuscles. 2. Medulla contains loops of Henle and collecting ducts. 3. Minor calyces unite to form renal pelvis. 4. Renal artery carries oxygenated blood to kidney. Correct combination: (1) 1, 2 and 4 only (2) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (3) 2 and 3 only (4) 1 and 4 only 108. Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates. Reason (R): Vertebrates possess vertebral column replacing notochord. (1) Both true and R explains A (2) Both true but R not explanation A (3) A true R false (4) A false R true 109. Match the Column : Column I Column II (a) Fishes (p) Lungs (b) Amphibia (q) Skin + lungs (c) Reptilia (r) Lungs (d) Mammalia (s) Gills (1) a–s, b–q, c–r, d–p (2) a–p, b–q, c–r, d–s (3) a–s, b–p, c–q, d–r (4) a–r, b–q, c–s, d–p MAJOR TEST SERIES PHASE- 1 9610ZMD800101250008 110. Statement I: Micturition is a reflex controlled by the spinal cord. Statement II: It is also influenced by higher brain centres. (1) Both I & II correct (2) I correct II incorrect (3) I incorrect II correct (4) Both I & II incorrect 111. Choose Incorrect Option : (1) Ammonia is most toxic nitrogenous waste. (2) Uric acid requires more water for excretion than urea. (3) Urea is moderately toxic. (4) Birds excrete uric acid. 112. Statement I: Cilia are motile projections moving mucus in trachea/bronchi. Statement II: Stereocilia are non-motile, conical for increased surface area in epididymis. (1) Both I & II are true (2) I true, II false (3) I false, II true (4) Both I & II are false 113. Incorrect match: (1) Reticular fibres — Lymph nodes, spleen stroma (2) Collagen fibres — Tendons, ligaments (white) (3) Elastin fibres — Yellow, branched, elastic (4) Areolar tissue — Dense regular connective 114. Assertion (A): Frog kidneys are dark red, bean- shaped, lying retroperitoneally. Reason (R): Each kidney is composed of several structural and functional units called uriniferous tubule. (1) Both true, R explains A (2) Both true, R does not explain A (3) A true, R false (4) A false, R true 115. Chitinous plates forming dorsal tergites and ventral sternites per body segment define: (1) Endoskeleton (2) Exoskeleton sclerites (3) Haemocoel (4) Tracheae 116. Match the following terms with their relevance to evolution: Column A Column B 1 Fossils a Leads to selection of resistant varieties in a much lesser time scale, e.g., antibiotic resistance. 2 Anthropogenic Action b Provide paleontological evidence of life forms varying over time and restricted to geological spans. 3 Stochastic Process c Darwin's definition of fitness, meaning leaving more progeny. 4 Reproductive Fitness d Evolution is described as this, based on chance events in nature and chance mutations. (1) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c (2) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c (3) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-b (4) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d MAJOR TEST SERIES PHASE- 1 9610ZMD800101250008 117. Assertion (A): Darwin’s Finches on the Galapagos Islands are a classic example of adaptive radiation. Reason (R): Different species of finches evolved from a single ancestral stock in the same geographical area, developing different beak structures based on their feeding habits. (1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true, but R is false. (4) A is false, but R is true. 118. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Wings of bat and butterfly are analogous organs. (2) Forelimbs of whale, bat, and human are homologous organs. (3) Analogous organs have the same evolutionary origin. (4) Homologous organs have similar basic structural patterns. 119. Identify how many of the following statements are correct regarding the human reproductive systems: I. The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2-2.5°C lower than body temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis. II. The female external genitalia includes the mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, hymen, and clitoris. III. The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into 15–20 mammary lobes containing clusters of cells called alveoli. IV. The presence or absence of a hymen is a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual experience. (1) Only one statement (2) Only two statements (3) Only three statements (4) All four statements 120. Consider the following two statements: Statement I : The LH surge (rapid secretion of LH) induces the rupture of the Graafian follicle and thereby the release of an ovum (ovulation). Statement II: The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 121. Assertion (A) : Spermiogenesis is the process where spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa. Reason (R) : After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become embedded in the Leydig cells and are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by spermiation. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false. (4) A is false but R is true. 122. The signals for parturition (childbirth) and the subsequent start of lactation are complex, but the milk ejection reflex is primarily triggered by the release of which hormone? (1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone (3) Oxytocin (4) Prolactin MAJOR TEST SERIES PHASE- 1 9610ZMD800101250008 123. Consider the following two statements regarding Infertility: Statement I: In 'GIFT', the zygote is transferred into the fallopian tube of a female who cannot produce one. Statement II: In 'ICSI', a sperm is directly injected into the cytoplasm of an ovum to form an embryo in the laboratory. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 124. Assertion (A): In females, Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) often remain undetected for a longer period compared to males. Reason (R): Early symptoms of STIs in females, such as minor itching or fluid discharge, are often asymptomatic or so slight that they are ignored. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false. (4) A is false but R is true. 125. Assertion (A): HIV is called a retrovirus because it has an RNA genome. Reason (R): Retroviruses use an enzyme called Reverse Transcriptase to replicate their RNA into DNA inside the host cell. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false. (4) A is false but R is true. 126. Identify how many of the following are purely bacterial diseases: I. Typhoid II. Cholera III. Diphtheria IV. Amoebiasis (1) Only one (2) Only two (3) Only three (4) All four 127. During an allergic reaction, the sneezing, watery eyes, and running nose are caused by the release of chemicals like: (1) Insulin and Glucagon from the pancreas. (2) Histamine and Serotonin from mast cells. (3) Adrenaline and Noradrenaline from the adrenal medulla. (4) Thyroxine from the thyroid gland. 128. Consider the following two statements regarding lymphoid organs: Statement I: The spleen is a large bean-shaped organ which acts as a filter of the blood by trapping blood-borne microorganisms. Statement II: MALT (Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue) constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in the human body. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. MAJOR TEST SERIES PHASE- 1 9610ZMD800101250008 129. Assertion (A): Recombination frequency is used to construct genetic maps. Reason (R): Percentage of recombination between two genes reflects their relative distance on chromosome. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation. (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (4) Assertion is false but Reason is true. 130. Statement I: Sex-linked genes are located on sex chromosomes. Statement II: In humans, many sex-linked traits are inherited through X chromosome. (1) Both statements are true. (2) Both statements are false. (3) Statement I true, Statement II false. (4) Statement I false, Statement II true. 131. Which of the following statements are correct regarding variation as described in NCERT? A. Mutation produces new alleles. B. Recombination during meiosis produces variation. C. Variation is essential for evolution. D. Variation occurs only due to mutation. (1) A, B, C (2) A, C, D (3) B, C, D (4) A, B, D 132. Identify the incorrect statement regarding Watson–Crick DNA model. (1) One turn of helix has about 10 base pairs. (2) Distance between two base pairs is 0.34 nm. (3) Diameter of helix is about 2 nm. (4) Bases are present on outer side of helix. 133. Assertion (A): RNA primer is required for DNA replication. Reason (R): DNA polymerase cannot start synthesis without free 3′-OH group. (1) Both true and reason explains A. (2) Both true but not explanation A. (3) Assertion true, reason false. (4) Assertion false, reason true. 134. Statement I: Lac operon has three structural genes — lacZ, lacY, lacA. Statement II: These genes code for proteins required for lactose metabolism. (1) Both statements are true. (2) Both statements are false. (3) Statement I true, Statement II false. (4) Statement I false, Statement II true. 135. Which of the following statements are correct regarding satellite DNA used in DNA fingerprinting? A. It consists of repetitive sequences. B. Shows high polymorphism. C. Same in all individuals. D. Useful in identification of individuals. (1) A, B, D (2) A, C, D (3) B, C, D (4) A, B, C 136. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding prokaryotic cells? (1) They lack membrane-bound organelles (2) They possess 70S ribosomes (3) Their DNA is associated with histone proteins (4) They divide by binary fission MAJOR TEST SERIES PHASE- 1 9610ZMD800101250008 137. Organelles of which of the following sets not contain DNA ? (1) mitochondria, peroxisome (2) mitochondria, chloroplast (3) peroxisome, glyoxisome (4) chloroplast, ribosome 138. Which one of the following statement is incorrect ? (1) Animal cells have centrioles, which are absent in all plant cells (2) All eukaryotic cells are not identical (3) Sap vacuoles are absent in animal cell. (4) Genetic material in eukaryotes are organised into centrosome. 139. Match the columns w.r.t. size and structure Column-I Column-II a Mycoplasma p 0.3 μm b Human RBC q 7.0 μm c Prokaryotic ribosome r 15-20 nm d Golgi cisternae s 0.5-1 μm e Mitochondria diameter t 0.2-1.0 μm f Mitochondria length u 1.0-4.1 μm g Perinuclear space v 10-50 nm (1) a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r, e-u, f-t, g-v (2) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s, e-t, f-u, g-v (3) a-p, b-t, c-s, d-r, e-q, f-u, g-v (4) a-r, b-p, c-q, d-t, e-s, f-v, g-u 140. Mitosis differs from meiosis in not having :- (a) Synapsis (b) Crossing over (c) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex (d) Terminalisation of chaismata (e) Division of centromere (1) a and b only (2) e only (3) a, b, c and d (4) a, b, c, d and e 141. How many of the following are correctly matched ? (A) Anaphase I : Centromere division (B) Pachytene : Recombination (C) Prophase in plant : Astral ray formation (D) Anaphase II : Segregation of homologous chromosomes (E) Anaphase : Centriole division (F) Meiosis : Gametes formation (1) Two (2) Four (3) Five (4) One 142. If there are 10 bivalents and arranged in one row, then what is difference in metaphase of mitosis and metaphase-II of meiosis : (1) 2n number is 20 (2) Random arrangement of chromosomes. (3) Genetically identical chromatids in metaphase and genetically different chromatids in metaphase-II. (4) genetically identical chromatids in metaphase-II and genetically different chromatids in Metaphase. MAJOR TEST SERIES PHASE- 1 9610ZMD800101250008 143. Which one precedes reformation of nuclear envelope during mitotic phase of cell cycle :- (1) Splitting of centromere and movement of chromatids towards poles. (2) Transcription from chromosome & reassembly of nuclear lamina. (3) Formation of contractile ring & phragmoplast. (4) Formation of contractile ring & transcription from chromosome. 144. A double stranded DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine base, then total number of nucleotide will be :- (1) 120 (2) 480 (3) 240 (4) 360 145. Dehydration synthesis takes place at the time of:- (1) Peptide bond formation (2) Glycosidic bond formation in polysaccharide (3) Phosphodiester bond formation in DNA (4) All the above 146. Read the following four statements (A-D) :- (A) Simple lipids may be monoglycerides, diglycerides and triglycerides. (B) Lysine is an acidic amino acid. (C) In solutions of different pHs the structure of amino acid changes. (D) Arachidonic acid has total 20 carbons. How many of the above statements are correct? (1) Two (2) One (3) Four (4) Three 147. The pollen tube enters embryo sac through: (1) Egg cell (2) Synergid (3) Antipodal (4) Central cell 148. Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is called: (1) Mesogamy (2) Chalazogamy (3) Porogamy (4) Apogamy 149. The mature embryo sac of most angiosperms contains: (1) 6 cells and 7 nuclei (2) 7 cells and 8 nuclei (3) 8 cells and 8 nuclei (4) 7 cells and 7 nuclei 150. When stamens in a flower are present in two unequal lengths, the condition is called: (1) Didynamous (2) Diadelphous (3) Monadelphous (4) Syngenesious 151. Which of the following families shows epipetalous stamens ? (1) Solanaceae (2) Fabaceae (3) Poaceae (4) Brassicaceae 152. Q Among mustard, muliathi, watermelon, soyabean, pumpkin, ashwagandha, Asparagus, brinjal, Allium, Trifolium, Rose, Indigofera, bitter gourd, plum, cucumber, arhar, moong and peach, how many plants have hypogynous flowers ? (1) Three (2) Ten (3) Four (4) Eleven 153. Meristematic tissues are responsible for: (1) Storage (2) Growth of plant (3) Photosynthesis (4) Transport MAJOR TEST SERIES PHASE- 1 9610ZMD800101250008 154. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two? (1) Secondary xylem (2) Secondary phloem (3) Protoxylem (4) Cortical cells 155. In cyclic photophosphorylation : (1) Both PS I and PS II function (2) Only PS I functions (3) Only PS II functions (4) Neither function 156. Total ATP requirement in C₄ pathway for synthesis of one glucose molecule is : (1) 18 ATP (2) 24 ATP (3) 30 ATP (4) 36 ATP 157. If light intensity is high, but CO₂ concentration is low, the rate of photosynthesis will be limited by: (1) Temperature (2) CO₂ concentration (3) Light intensity (4) Oxygen concentration 158. Complete oxidation of glucose produces: (1) CO₂ only (2) CO₂ and H₂O (3) O₂ and H₂O (4) Glucose and ATP 159. During one turn of Krebs cycle, the number of CO₂ molecules released is : (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 160. Proton accumulation occurs in: (1) Mitochondrial matrix (2) Intermembrane space (3) Cytoplasm (4) Stroma 161. Arithmetic growth differs from geometric growth because: (1) Both daughter cells divide in arithmetic growth (2) Only one daughter cell continues to divide (3) No cell division occurs (4) Cells only enlarge 162. Arithmetic growth shows: (1) Constant growth rate (2) Increasing growth rate (3) Decreasing growth rate (4) Random growth 163. Assertion : The DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided by the agarose gel. Reason : Hence, the larger the fragment size, the farther it moves. (1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion. (2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion. (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong. (4) Assertion and reason both are wrong. 164. Assertion: Normally, antibiotics resistant gene such as ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline or kanamycin, etc., are considered useful selectable markers for E.coli. Reason: The normal E.coli cells carry resistance against these antibiotics. (1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion. (2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion. (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong. (4) Assertion and reason both are wrong. MAJOR TEST SERIES PHASE- 1 9610ZMD800101250008 165. Assertion: When foreign DNA ligate at the BamH I site of tetracycline resistance gene in the vector pBR322 the recombinant plasmids will lose tetracycline resistance but not ampicillin resistance. Reason: The recombinants will grow in ampicillin containing medium but not on that containing tetracycline. But, non-recombinants will grow on the medium containing both the antibiotics. (1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion. (2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion. (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong. (4) Assertion and reason both are wrong. 166. Assertion: The Green Revolution succeeded in tripling the food supply yet it was not enough to feed the growing human population. Reason: Further increases in yield with existing varieties are possible using conventional breeding. (1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion. (2) Assertion and reason both are true but the reason is not correct explanation of assertion. (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong. (4) Assertion and reason both are wrong. 167. Assertion: If a person is born with a hereditary disease, gene therapy can be taken as a corrective therapy. Reason: Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has been diagnosed in a child/embryo. (1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion. (2) Assertion and reason both are true but the reason is not correct explanation of assertion. (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong. (4) Assertion and reason both are wrong. 168. Assertion: For effective treatment of a disease, early diagnosis and understanding of its pathophysiology is very important. Reason: Early detection is possible by using conventional methods of diagnosis through serum and urine analysis. (1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion. (2) Assertion and reason both are true but the reason is not correct explanation of assertion. (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong. (4) Assertion and reason both are wrong. 169. A person is suffering from an age related disorder "X". X is characterized by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures. Identify X and its common cause (1) Tetany, Increased levels of estrogen (2) Osteoporosis, Decreased levels of estrogen (3) Myasthenia gravis, Decreased levels of estrogen (4) Muscular dystrophy, Increased levels of estrogen MAJOR TEST SERIES PHASE- 1 9610ZMD800101250008 170. The joint between _____(i)____ and _____(ii)_____ forms ball and socket joint. (1) (i) - Humerus, (ii) - Ulna (2) (i) - Humerus, (ii) - Scapula (3) (i) - Ulna, (ii) - Radius (4) (i) - Ulna, (ii) - Scapula 171. What will happen if the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibres is damaged? (1) Binding of ATP to actin will be affected. (2) Release of inhibition on Z discs will stop. (3) Exposure of myosin binding sites on the actin will be affected. (4) Transmission of action potential along the sarcolemma will increase 172. Assertion: A rise in pCO , H ions and temperature shifts the HbO dissociation curve to right. Reason: A rise in pCO or fall in pH decreases oxygen affinity for haemoglobin. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. 173. In mammals, carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to respiratory surface by (1) Plasma (2) R.B.C. (3) W.B.C. (4) Both (1) and (2) 174. Match each area of the heart (column-I) with the structure Column I (Area of heart) Column II (Receive blood from) A. Right atrium I. Left atrium B. Right ventricle II. Vena cavae C. Left atrium III. Right atrium D. Left ventricle IV. Pulmonary veins (1) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (2) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (3) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (4) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II 175. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted? (1) Peak P and Peak R together — Systolic and diastolic blood pressures (2) Peak P — Initiation of left atrial contraction only (3) Complex QRS — One complete pulse (4) Peak T — Initiation of total cardiac contraction 176. You are watching a horror movie and you notice your heart is beating fast and mouth is dry. It is because of (1) Fight and flight response (2) Sympathetic nervous system (3) Parasympathetic nervous system (4) Both (1) and (2) 2 + 2 2 MAJOR TEST SERIES PHASE- 1 9610ZMD800101250008 177. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. Which one of the following is likely to happen in his neuro-hormonal control system? (1) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of brain. (2) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal cortex. (3) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal medulla. (4) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse. 178. The label X represents ___i_____ and the hormone released by it is _____ii______. Identify (i) and (ii). (1) i- Adrenal cortex, ii- Epinephrine (2) i- Adrenal cortex, ii- Aldosterone (3) i- Adrenal medulla, ii- Epinephrine (4) i- Adrenal medulla, ii- Aldosterone 179. The given diagram represents the location of human endocrine glands I, II, III, IV and V Which of the following gland is correctly matched with their secretions? Glands Their secretions A. I Melatonin B. II Thymosin C. III Epinephrine D. IV Aldosterone E. V Testosterone (1) I, II and III only (2) I, IV and V only (3) II, IV, and V only (4) II, III and V only 180. Hormones produced by anterior lobe of pituitary (1) control calcium level in blood (2) stimulate thyroid and other endocrine glands (3) initiate alarm reaction (4) regulate water balance in body. MAJOR TEST SERIES PHASE- 1 9610ZMD800101250008 MAJOR TEST SERIES PHASE- 1 9610ZMD800101250008