The first step of cellular respiration, glycolysis, occurs in: (A) Mitochondrial matrix (B) Cytoplas — NEET Chemistry Past Papers Chemistry Question

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The first step of cellular respiration, glycolysis, occurs in: (A) Mitochondrial matrix (B) Cytoplasm (C) Inner mitochondrial membrane (D) Chloroplast 100. The enzyme responsible for conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA is located in: (1) Cytosol (2) Mitochondrial matrix (3) Outer mitochondrial membrane (4) Peroxisome SUBJECT : BIOLOGY 2 3 MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250005 101. The proton gradient required for ATP synthesis is generated across: (1) Outer mitochondrial membrane (2) Inner mitochondrial membrane (3) Nuclear membrane (4) Cell membrane 102. Measurement and comparison of total growth per unit time is called as : (1) Absolute growth rate (2) Relative growth rate (3) Net assimilation rate (4) Differentiation index 103. Which combination correctly matches hormone and function? (1) Auxin – Fruit ripening (2) Cytokinin – Senescence promotion (3) Ethylene – Triple response in seedlings (4) ABA – Stem elongation 104. Assertion (A): Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for species-specific, narrow-spectrum insecticidal applications. Reason (R): They have no negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, or non-target insects. (1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false. (4) Both A and R are false. 105. Choose how many are correct. A. Porifera lack true tissues B. Ctenophores show bioluminescence C. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomate D. Aschelminthes have complete gut (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four 106. Choose the incorrect Statement - (1) Annelids have closed circulatory system. (2) Arthropods possess exoskeleton. (3) Molluscs have ambulacral system (4) Echinoderms are spiny skinned. 107. Assertion (A): Amphibians require water bodies for reproduction. Reason (R): Their eggs lack protective shell. (1) Both true, R explains A (2) Both true, R doesn’t explain A (3) A true, R false (4) A false, R true 108. A. Ciliated epithelium helps in movement of substances B. It is commonly found in respiratory tract C. All columnar epithelia are ciliated D. Cilia are non-motile structures Correct statements: (1) A and B only (2) A, B and D (3) B and C only (4) All are correct 109. Which of the following is incorrect statement ? (1) Cartilage heals faster than bone (2) Bone is highly vascular (3) Adipose tissue cushions organs (4) Ligaments are elastic 110. A. Frog bile can emulsify fat. B. Frog pancreas secretes trypsinogen. C. Frog intestine opens into cloaca. D. Frog has diaphragm. Correct option is - (1) A, B and C (2) B and D (3) A and D (4) All are correct MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250005 111. Find the correct option from the options given below the statements - A. Female genital aperture opens into genital chamber. B. Ootheca contains fertilised eggs. C. Bidder’s canal is present in female cockroach. D. Spermatophore formation occurs in male. (1) A, B and D (2) B and C (3) A and C (4) All are correct 112. Find the incorrect statement - (1) PCT reabsorbs HCO (2) DCT secretes H (3) Collecting duct reabsorbs water (4) Ascending limb reabsorbs water 113. Increased atrial stretch causes: (1) Renin release (2) ADH release (3) ANF release (4) Aldosterone release 114. Saltation refers to: (1) Gradual changes (2) Large mutations (3) Small variations (4) Environmental adaptations 115. Statement I: Adaptive radiation occurs only on islands. Statement II: Adaptive radiation is rapid diversification of a single lineage into many species adapted to different ecological niches. (1) Both I and II are correct and II explains I (2) Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I (3) I is correct but II is incorrect (4) I is incorrect but II is correct 116. In a population, 1 in 2500 individuals shows a recessive trait (affected by cystic fibrosis). Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of the dominant allele? (1) 0.02 (2) 0.98 (3) 0.04 (4) 0.96 117. Forensic scientists have to work often with extremely small samples of DNA obtained from the hair or other sources of suspected criminals. However, it is possible to produce DNA 'fingerprint' from these small samples by using : (1) gene gun (2) gene cloning (3) polymerase chain reaction (4) genetically engineered microorganisms 118. Which of the following should be chosen for best yield if one were to produces a recombinant protein in large amounts? (1) Laboratory flask of largest capacity (2) A stirred-tank bioreactor without inlets and outlets (3) A continuous culture system (4) Any of the above 119. Which of the given statements is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by agarose gel electrophoresis? (1) DNA can be seen in visible light (2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light (3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen orange in visible light (4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light 3– + MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250005 120. Which is the correct match? (1) Cry I Ab—Cotton bollworms (2) Cry I Ac—Cotton bollworms (3) Cry I Ac—Corn borer (4) Cry II Ab—Corn borer 121. Find the correct match. Column I Column II a. Army worms 1. Dipteran b. Flies 2. Lepidopteran c. Beetles 3. Coelopteran d. Mosquitoes e. Tobacco budworm a b c d (1) 1 3 2 1 (2) 2 1 3 1 (3) 3 2 1 3 (4) 2 1 3 1 122. ADA deficiency is caused due to the - (1) Deletion (2) Translocation (3) Substitution (4) Inversion 123. Arrange the following steps in correct sequence of muscle contraction: A. Binding of Ca²⁺ to troponin B. Exposure of active sites on actin C. Formation of cross bridge D. Release of ADP and Pi leading to power stroke (1) C → A → B → D (2) B → A → C → D (3) A → C → B → D (4) A → B → C → D 124. Match the columns - Column I (Bones) Column II (Type of Joint) A. Atlas – Axis 1. Ball and socket B. Humerus – Pectoral girdle 2. Pivot joint C. Femur – Pelvic girdle 3. Hinge joint D. Between carpals 4. Gliding joint E. Between frontal and parietal bones 5. Fibrous joint (1) A-2, B-1, C-1, D-4, E-5 (2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4, E-5 (3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-5 (4) A-1, B-2, C-1, D-4, E-5 125. A. It is characterized by decreased bone mass. B. It commonly occurs due to decreased estrogen. C. Bones become soft due to vitamin C deficiency. D. Increased fracture risk is seen. Choose the correct statements about osteoporosis. (1) Only C is correct (2) A and C correct (3) B and C correct (4) A, B and D correct 126. Which of the following is the correct match of parts of brain and their functions? A. Cerebellum maintains posture and balance. B Hypothalamus regulates body temperature. C. Medulla controls respiration and heartbeat. D. Cerebrum controls involuntary actions only. (1) Only D is correct (2) A and D correct (3) A, B and C correct (4) All incorrect MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250005 127. Arrange the mechanism of transmission of nerve impulse correctly: A. Arrival of action potential at axon terminal B. Opening of Ca²⁺ channels C. Release of neurotransmitter D. Depolarization of postsynaptic membrane (1) B → A → C → D (2) A → B → C → D (3) A → C → B → D (4) C → A → B → D 128. Match the columns - Column I (Gland) Column II (Hormone) A. Thyroid 1. Melatonin B. Parathyroid 2. Parathormone C. Pineal 3. Thyroxine D. Thymus 4. Thymosin E. GIT 5. Secretin (1) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1, E-5 (2) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4, E-5 (3) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-5 (4) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4, E-5 129. Steroid hormones: (1) Bind to cell surface receptors. (2) Act through second messenger system. (3) Bind to intracellular receptors and regulate gene expression. (4) Act only on membrane proteins. 130. Diabetes Mellitus A. Caused by deficiency of insulin. B. Hyperglycemia is observed. C. Glycosuria may occur. D. Decreased urine output. Choose the correct statements - (1) B and D correct (2) A and D correct (3) A, B, C correct (4) All correct 131. Oxyhemoglobin Dissociation Curve A. It is sigmoid in shape. B. High pCO₂ shifts curve right. C. High pH shifts curve right. D. High temperature shifts curve right. Choose the correct statements - (1) A, B, D correct (2) A and C correct (3) B and C correct (4) All correct 132. Match the following columns and choose the correct answer from the options given below A. Tidal volume 1. 500 mL B. Inspiratory reserve volume 2. 2500–3000 mL C. Expiratory reserve volume 3. 1000–1100 mL D. Vital capacity 4. TV + IRV + ERV (1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (2) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (3) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (4) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 133. Match the following column s and choose the correct answer - A. RBC 1. Blood clotting B. WBC 2. Oxygen transport C. Platelets 3. Immunity D. Albumins 4. Maintain osmotic pressure (1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (4) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250005 134. Read the following statements about heart sounds - A. First heart sound is “lub”. B. Second heart sound is due to closure of semilunar valves. C. “Lub” is due to closure of AV valves. D. Second heart sound occurs at beginning of ventricular systole. (1) Only A is correct (2) A and D correct (3) B and C correct (4) A, B, C correct 135. During which stage of embryonic development does implantation in the uterus occur? (1) Zygote (2) Morula (3) Blastocyst (4) Gastrula 136. Which of the following is the correct sequence in spermatogenesis? (1) Spermatogonia → Spermatocytes → Spermatids → Spermatozoa (2) Spermatocytes → Spermatogonia → Spermatids → Spermatozoa (3) Spermatids → Spermatocytes → Spermatogonia → Spermatozoa (4) Spermatogonia → Spermatids → Spermatocytes → Spermatozoa 137. In oogenesis, at which stage is the secondary oocyte arrested before ovulation? (1) Prophase I (2) Metaphase II (3) Telophase I (4) Anaphase II 138. Which of the following is the primary function of the mammary glands? (1) Production of gametes (2) Synthesis and secretion of milk (3) Storage of ova (4) Secretion of hormones for ovulation 139. Which of the following statements about hormonal contraceptives is correct? (1) Combined oral pills prevent pregnancy by suppressing ovulation and thickening cervical mucus. (2) Hormonal IUDs prevent fertilization by physically blocking sperm entry only. (3) Hormonal contraceptives are effective in preventing sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). (4) Progesterone-only pills stimulate ovulation. 140. Which contraceptive method can prevent both pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs)? (1) Male condom (2) Oral pill (3) Copper-T (4) Hormonal patch 141. Which of the following cells are primarily targeted and destroyed by HIV? (1) B-lymphocytes (2) CD4⁺ T-lymphocytes (3) Macrophages only (4) Natural Killer cells 142. Which of the following statements about cancer is correct? (1) Benign tumors invade other tissues and metastasize. (2) Carcinogens can induce mutations leading to uncontrolled cell division. (3) Proto-oncogenes prevent uncontrolled cell growth. (4) All tumors are cancerous. MAJOR TEST SERIES_PHASE-1 9610ZMD800101250005 143. Which of the following statements about drug abuse is correct? (1) Opioids act as stimulants on the central nervous system. (2) Long-term alcohol consumption damages the liver and brain. (3) Nicotine has no addictive properties. (4) All abused drugs are non-addictive if used occasionally. 144. Passive immunity differs from active immunity because: (1) It involves memory cell formation. (2) It provides long-lasting protection. (3) Antibodies are transferred directly and protection is immediate. (4) It requires pathogen exposure to trigger antibody production. 145. Which of the following is an accurate example of a 'population'? (1) All the different types of birds found in a forest. (2) A single bulbul singing in a garden. (3) All the teakwood trees growing in a specific forest tract. (4) Various species of fishes living in the same pond. 146. Assertion (A): Habitat with limited resources has a carrying capacity (K). Reason (R): Carrying capacity is the maximum population size the habitat with limited