Select the correct option with respect to given diagram : Chromosome Position of centromere Shape du — NEET Chemistry Past Papers Chemistry Question

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Select the correct option with respect to given diagram : Chromosome Position of centromere Shape during Anaphase (A) (A) Metacentric Away from centre V-shape (B) (B) Sub- metacentric Slightly away from centre L-shape (C) (C) Sub- metacentric Far away from centre V-shape (D) (D) Acrocentric Middle V-shape 100. Read the following statements carefully : (A) Inner nuclear membrane is continuous with RER & it bears ribosomes. (B) Materials of the nucleus stained by the acidic dye was given the name chromatin by Flemming (1) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect (2) Only (A) is incorrect (3) Only (B) is incorrect (4) Both (A) and (B) are correct 101. Some cell cycle events are given below. (a) Sister chromatids seperate and move towards opposite poles. (b) Division of centromere (c) Chromosome number gets doubled. (d) Segregation of homologous chromosomes. Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct w.r.t Anaphase–I ? (1) (a) & (d) (2) (b) & (c) (3) (a), (b) & (c) (4) (d) only 102. Pick the incorrect statement w.r.t ‘cell cycle’. (1) Cell growth is a continuous process in terms of DNA synthesis. (2) The replicated chromosomes are distributed to daughter nuclei by a complex series of events. (3) These events are under genetic control. (4) Cytoplasmic increase is continuous. 103. Pick the correct match/(es) (i) Duplicated centrioles begin to move towards opposite poles - transition to metaphase (ii) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosome - Prophase (iii) Chromosomes are moved to equator- Metaphase (iv) Daughter chromosomes move away from equatorial plate - Anaphase (1) All statements (2) All except (ii) (3) (iii) & (iv) (4) (i) & (ii) 104. Read the following statements about Telophase : (i) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles (ii) Chromosome identity is lost as discrete elements (iii) Nucleolus, golgi complex & ER deform (iv) Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters. How many of the above statement/(s) is/are incorrect ? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) All (4) None MAJOR TEST SERIES COURSE_PHASE - 1 9610ZMD800101250010 105. Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by – (1) Base–sugar–OH (2) Base–sugar–phosphate (3) Sugar–phosphate (4) (Base–sugar–phosphate) 106. Which one out of A - D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 107. (i) Transient association with the protein part of conjugated enzyme. (ii) Non protein organic substance. (iii) Usually made up of vitamins. All the above characters are applicable to :- (1) Apoenzyme (2) Holoenzyme (3) Coenzyme (4) Isoenzyme 108. If a heterozygous tall pea plant is self-pollinated, what is the genotypic ratio of the resulting F generation? (1) 3 Tall : 1 Dwarf (2) 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt (3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 TT : 1 Tt : 1 tt 109. Assertion (A): In Morgan's dihybrid cross with Drosophila, the F₂ ratio deviated significantly from the 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio. Reason (R): The two genes involved were located on the same chromosome and did not segregate independently. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. (4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct. 110. Which of the following statements about haemophilia is incorrect? (1) It is a sex-linked recessive disease. (2) A single cut will result in non-stop bleeding due to a defect in a clotting cascade protein. (3) The heterozygous female carrier may transmit the disease to her sons. (4) The possibility of a female becoming haemophilic is extremely high. 111. Statement I: Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty discovered that DNA alone from S bacteria caused R bacteria to become transformed. Statement II: They discovered that protein- digesting enzymes and RNA-digesting enzymes inhibited the transformation process. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. n 2 MAJOR TEST SERIES COURSE_PHASE - 1 9610ZMD800101250010 112. Match the types of RNA with their respective roles in bacteria: Column- A Column-B A. mRNA (i) Plays structural and catalytic roles during translation B. tRNA (ii) Provides the template for protein synthesis C. rRNA (iii) Brings amino acids and reads the genetic code (1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i) (2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i) (3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii) (4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii) 113. Identify the incorrect statement about the structure of a polynucleotide chain. (1) A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1′ C pentose sugar through an N-glycosidic linkage. (2) Two nucleotides are linked through 3′–5′ phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide. (3) The backbone of a polynucleotide chain is formed by nitrogenous bases and phosphates. (4) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional –OH group at the 2′ position in ribose. 114. Which of the following is true about Untranslated Regions (UTRs) in mRNA? (1) They are located only at the 5′ end before the start codon. (2) They are translated into non-functional proteins. (3) They are present at both the 5′ end and 3′ end and are required for efficient translation. (4) They are removed during splicing along with introns. 115. The body cavity in roundworms is (1) Absent (2) Pseudocoelom (3) True coelom (4) Haemocoel 116. Notochord is present at some stage in the life of (1) All invertebrates (2) All chordates (3) Only vertebrates (4) Only mammals 117. Statement 1: Ctenophores possess comb plates. Statement 2: Ctenophores are triploblastic. (1) Only 1 correct (2) Only 2 correct (3) Both correct (4) Both incorrect 118. Statement I: Areolar connective tissue serves as a support framework for epithelium. Statement II: Areolar tissue contains fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells. (1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect. (3) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect (4) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct 119. The cells of cartilage are known as: (1) Osteocytes (2) Chondrocytes (3) Fibroblasts (4) Erythrocytes 120. Match Column I with Column II Column I Column II A. Vocal sacs 1. Protection in water B. Nictitating membrane 2. Sound production C. Bidder’s canal 3. Male urinogenital link D. Fat bodies 4. Food reserve (1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (2) A-2, B-3, C-2, D-4 (3) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 (4) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 MAJOR TEST SERIES COURSE_PHASE - 1 9610ZMD800101250010 121. The mouthparts of a cockroach are specifically adapted for which type of feeding mechanism? (1) Piercing and sucking (2) Sponging (3) Siphoning (4) Biting and chewing 122. The site of maximum reabsorption (65–70%) in the nephron is: (1) Loop of Henle (2) Distal convoluted tubule (3) Proximal convoluted tubule (4) Collecting duct 123. Statement I: Proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs glucose actively. Statement II: Distal convoluted tubule is always impermeable to water. (1) Only I correct (2) Only II correct (3) Both correct (4) Both incorrect 124. Assertion (A): Tropical regions show greater biodiversity than temperate regions. Reason (R): Tropical regions have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation (3) A is true, R is false (4) A is false, R is true 125. Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Biodiversity increases from poles to equator 2. Species richness decreases with increase in area 3. Ecologists use species-area relationship to study biodiversity (1) 1 and 3 only (2) 2 and 3 only (3) 1 and 2 only (4) All of these 126. Match List I with List II: List I List II A. Endemism 1. Western Ghats B. Biodiversity hotspot 2. Restricted distribution of species C. In situ conservation 3. National parks (1) A-2, B-1, C-3 (2) A-1, B-2, C-3 (3) A-2, B-3, C-1 (4) A-3, B-1, C-2 127. Assertion (A): Energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional. Reason (R): Energy is lost as heat at each trophic level. (1) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation (2) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation (3) A is true, R is false (4) A is false, R is true 128. Identify the correct statements: 1. Pyramid of energy is always upright 2. Pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted 3. Pyramid of numbers is always upright 4. Producers occupy first trophic level (1) 1, 2, 4 (2) 1, 3, 4 (3) 2, 3, 4 (4) All are correct 129. Match List I with List II: List I List II A. GPP 1. Energy after respiration B. NPP 2. Total energy fixed by producers C. Secondary productivity 3. Consumers level D. Standing crop 4. Biomass present at a given time in particular area (1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (3) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 MAJOR TEST SERIES COURSE_PHASE - 1 9610ZMD800101250010 130. A forest area is reduced due to urbanization leading to loss of species. This is an example of: (1) Habitat fragmentation (2) Overexploitation (3) Alien species invasion (4) Co-extinction 131. The slope of species-area relationship (z value) is: (1) 0.1–0.2 for small areas (2) 0.6–1.2 for small areas (3) Always constant (4) Negative 132. Systematics is a branch of study dealing with the diversity of organisms and their relationships. What key aspect did the later enlarged scope of systematics take into account? (1) Only morphological characteristics (2) The uses of various organisms for human food (3) Evolutionary relationships between organisms (4) Only the ecological habitat of the organisms 133. Which major group of protozoans includes diverse organisms that have an infectious spore- like stage in their life cycle, such as the malarial parasite Plasmodium? (1) Amoeboid protozoans (2) Flagellated protozoans (3) Ciliated protozoans (4) Sporozoans 134. The protein coat of a virus protects its nucleic acid. What is this protein coat called, and what are its small subunits called? (1) Pellicle made of proteins (2) Capsid made of capsomeres (3) Cell wall made of chitin (4) Sheath made of hyphae 135. In the class Phycomycetes, a zygospore is formed by the fusion of two gametes. Which of the following terms correctly describes the condition when these fusing gametes are dissimilar in morphology? (1) Isogamous (2) Anisogamous or oogamous (3) Dikaryotic (4) Coenocytic 136. The members of Phaeophyceae (brown algae) show great variation in size and form. Which form is represented by simple, branched, filamentous structures? (1) Ectocarpus (2) Kelps (3) Fucus (4) Dictyota 137. Why is the spread of living pteridophytes limited and restricted to narrow geographical regions? (1) Because their heavy seeds cannot be easily dispersed by the wind. (2) Because their gametophytes require cool, damp, shady places to grow and need water for fertilisation. (3) Because they completely lack vascular tissues to transport water. (4) Because they are obligate parasites on specific gymnosperm trees. 138. In the gymnosperm Cycas, what specific type of leaves persist for a few years? (1) Simple needle-like leaves (2) Pinnate leaves (3) Broad macrophylls (4) Microphylls 139. In which of the following plants are the leaves modified into tendrils for climbing? (1) Pisum sativum (2) Allium cepa (3) Opuntia (4) Acacia nilotica MAJOR TEST SERIES COURSE_PHASE - 1 9610ZMD800101250010 140. Select the incorrect statement regarding the flower of Fabaceae family: (1) Flowers are zygomorphic and polypetalous. (2) The androecium consists of ten stamens, diadelphous. (3) The ovary is inferior and unilocular with many ovules. (4) The corolla consists of a standard, two wings, and two keels. 141. Arrange the following regions of the root in the correct chronological order from the root tip upwards: A. Region of maturation B. Root cap C. Region of elongation D. Region of meristematic activity (1) B → D → C → A (2) B → C → D → A (3) D → B → C → A (4) A → C → D → B 142. In a dicot stem, the cells of the cambium present between primary xylem and primary phloem is the: (1) Interfascicular cambium (2) Intrafascicular cambium (3) Phellogen (4) Cork cambium 143. Assertion (A): The peripheral vascular bundles in a monocot stem are generally smaller than the centrally located ones. Reason (R): Water-containing cavities are present within the vascular bundles of monocot stems. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false but (R) is true. 144. Given below are two statements: Statement I: The primary CO acceptor in C plants is a 3-carbon molecule Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP). Statement II: The C acid OAA is formed in the bundle sheath cells of the leaf. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 145. Match the following: Column I Column II A. Chlorophyll a i. Yellow-green B. Chlorophyll b ii. Yellow-orange C. Xanthophylls iii. Blue-green D. Carotenoids iv. Yellow (1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv (3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i 146. How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin cycle? (1) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH (2) 12 ATP and 18 NADPH (3) 30 ATP and 12 NADPH (4) 18 ATP and 30 NADPH 2 4 4 MAJOR TEST SERIES COURSE_PHASE - 1 9610ZMD800101250010 147. which complex contains Cytochrome 'a' and a and two copper centers? (1) Complex I (2) Complex II (3) Complex III (4) Complex IV 148. Which of the following is the correct statement regarding glycolysis? (1) It occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. (2) It is an aerobic process requiring oxygen. (3) The net gain of ATP is 2 molecules for one glucose. (4) Glucose is converted into Acetyl CoA directly. 149. If 2 molecules of Sucrose are subjected to complete aerobic respiration, how many molecules of Pyruvic acid will be produced? (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 6 150. Which of the following PGR is a derivative of terpenes? (1) Indole-3-acetic acid (2) Gibberellic acid (3) Abscisic acid (4) Zeatin 151. The phenomenon of "Bolting" is induced by: (1) Auxin (2) Ethylene (3) Gibberellin (4) Cytokinin 152. The following diagram represents (1) Adenovirus which is capable of causing respiratory infections (2) Proteinaceous infectious agents (3) A prokaryote which causes respiratory disorder (4) Fungal colony growing in a petridish 153. Which is not an example of long bones :- (1) Humerus (2) Radius (3) Ulna (4) Carpals 154. Given below is the diagrammatic view of human skull in which certain bones are labelled by A, B, C and D. Find out the correct option in which all the alphabets are correctly labelled? (A) (B) (C) (D) (1) Zygomatic bone Sphenoid bone Temporal bone Frontal bone (2) Sphenoid bone Maxilla bone Occipital bone Parietal bone (3) Sphenoid bone Zygomatic bone Occipital bone Frontal bone (4) Zygomatic bone Maxilla bone Temporal bone Parietal bone (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 3 MAJOR TEST SERIES COURSE_PHASE - 1 9610ZMD800101250010 155. Consider the following diagram showing four stages (A–D) of muscle contraction and select the option with incorrect information regarding these stages ? (1) A - Myosin head not attached with actin due to masking of active sites. B - Binding of energized myosin heads to the exposed active sites on actin filaments (2) B - Formation of cross bridges C - Rotation of myosin heads and sliding of actin filaments over myosin. (3) C - Utilising the energy by myosin heads from ATP hydrolysis D - Formation of cross-bridges (4) C - Rotation of myosin heads D - Breaking of cross-bridges 156. Read the following statement carefully :- (A) Alveoli are primary sites of exchange of gases. (B) Trachea has 'c' shape rings which are ventrally incomplete. (C) Covering of lung are called pleura. (D) Right lung has 2 lobes and left has 3 lobes. How many statement is/are not incorrect ? (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4 157. Different respiratory volumes are given below : I. Tidal Volume = 500 ml II. Residual volume 820 ml III. Inspiratory Reserve Volume = 2500 ml IV. Expiratory Reserve Volume = 975 ml The expiratory capacity (EC) is :- (1) 3500 ml (2) 1795 ml (3) 1475 ml (4) 3000 ml 158. Which among the following statements are correct and which are wrong ? 1. Plasma constitutes 45% of blood. 2. Albumin is plasma protein involved in osmotic balance. 3. Blood clotting factors are present in blood. 4. Plasma without clotting factors is serum. 5. Minerals are not found in blood. (1) 1-4 correct, 5 wrong (2) 1-2 correct, 3, 4, 5 wrong (3) 2, 3, 4 correct, 1 and 5 wrong (4) 2 and 4 correct, 1, 3, 5 wrong 159. When heart stops beating, it is recognized as (1) Cardiac arrest (2) Heart failure (3) Heart attack (4) Heart block 160. Match these columns :- Column-I Column-II A CNS i Cranial and spinal nerves B PNS ii Relay impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles C Somatic neural system iii transmits impulses from CNS to involuntary organs and smooth muscles D Autonomic neural system iv Site of information processing and control (1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii (3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii (4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i MAJOR TEST SERIES COURSE_PHASE - 1 9610ZMD800101250010 161. Consider the following facts regarding the structures labelled as alphabets (A to F) in the adjacent diagram of human brain and choose the correct option. (i) Major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling (ii) When get blocked, it may lead to CSF not passed (iii) Related with visual and auditory reflexes (iv) Contains regulatory centres for respiration, cardio-vascular reflexs and gastric secretions (1) (i)-A, (ii)-B, (iii)-C, (iv)-D (2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-D, (iv)-E (3) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-E, (iv)-F (4) (i)-C, (ii)-B, (iii)-E, (iv)-A 162. Match the following columns and select the correct option : Column-I Column-II (a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave's disease (b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus (c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus (d) Pancreas (iv) Addision's disease (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 163. Identify A, B and C in the diagramatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action. Select the correct option from the following : (1) A-Steroid Hormone; B-Hormone-receptor Complex, C-Protein (2) A-Protein Hormone, B-Receptor; C-Cyclic AMP (3) A-Steroid Hormone; B-Receptor, C - Second Messenger (4) A-Protein Hormone; B-Cyclic AMP, C-Hormone-receptor Complex 164. Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporesis ? (1) Aldosterone and Prolactin (2) Progesterone and Aldosterone (3) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone (4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin 165. Match the cell type with its meiotic outcome Column A (Cell Type) Column B (Ova/Sperm) (a) Two primary Spermatocyte (i) 4 cells (b) Four primary Oocyte (ii) 8 cells Which is the correct association? (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i) (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(i) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(ii) MAJOR TEST SERIES COURSE_PHASE - 1 9610ZMD800101250010 166. Regarding embryonic transfer in IVF, identify the correct placement (True/False): (i) ZIFT: Zygote transferred into the Uterus. (ii) IUT: Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres transferred into the Uterus. (iii) GIFT: Gametes transferred into the Fallopian tube. (1) T, T, T (2) F, T, T (3) F, F, T (4) T, F, F 167. A clinical researcher is studying "Saheli" and "Amniocentesis." Which statement is incorrect? (1) Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive. (2) Saheli prevents ovulation by modulating progesterone. (3) Amniocentesis is legally restricted to detect genetic disorders. (4) Statutory ban on amniocentesis is to prevent female foeticide. 168. Arrange the following events of a "Successful Fertilization" in the correct order of occurrence: 1. Plasma membrane fusion 2. Acrosomal reaction 3. Formation of Zygote 4. Cleavage division (1) 2-4-1-3 (2) 2-1-3-4 (3) 4-2-1-3 (4) 1-2-4-3 169. Select the pair that correctly matches a "Barrier of Innate Immunity" with its example: (1) Physical Barrier — Saliva in mouth (2) Physiological Barrier — Skin (3) Cytokine Barrier — Interferons (4) Cellular Barrier — Mucus coating 170. Identify the "Odd One Out" regarding passive immunity: (1) Injection of antitoxin for a snake bite. (2) Transfer of IgA through Colostrum. (3) IgG crossing the placenta to the fetus. (4) Vaccination against Hepatitis B. 171. "Smack" is to "Depressant" as "Cocaine" is to ________: (1) Hallucinogen (2) Stimulant (3) Sedative (4) Painkiller 172. Which test-disease pair is matched wrong? (1) Widal Test — Typhoid (2) ELISA — AIDS (3) Biopsy — Cancer (4) Biopsy — Malaria 173. In a "Swan-neck flask" experiment, why did life not appear in the broth initially? (1) The broth was not nutrient-rich enough. (2) The "vital force" could not reach the broth. (3) Microbes were trapped in the curved neck and couldn't reach the broth. (4) The temperature was too low for spontaneous generation. 174. If a population of 200 people has 18% frequency of a recessive allele (q=0.18), but after a sudden volcanic eruption, the frequency becomes 45% (q=0.45) in the survivors, this is an example of: (1) Natural Selection (2) Saltation (3) Genetic Drift (Bottleneck effect) (4) Directional Selection MAJOR TEST SERIES COURSE_PHASE - 1 9610ZMD800101250010 175. Hugo de Vries differs from Darwin because de Vries believed: (1) Evolution is gradual and small. (2) Mutations are random and directionless. (3) Acquired traits are inherited. (4) Evolution is a deterministic process. 176. Transfer of sperms into female genital tract is known as - (1) Reproduction (2) Insemination (3) Spermiation (4) Spermatogenesis 177. Ovulation is induced by - (1) High Progesterone (2) Low FSH (3) High LH (4) Low estrogen 178. A plant produces 400 pollen grains. Out of these: • 250 germinate • 100 reach ovules • 80 successful fertilizations occur How many zygotes, endosperms, and unused male gametes are produced? (1) 80, 80, 40 (2) 80, 80, 20 (3) 100, 100, 40 (4) 80, 100, 20 179. In angiosperm functional megaspore develops into in angiosperm : (1) Zygote (2) Embryo sac (3) Ovule (4) Endosperm 180. Which cells degenerate after fertilization? (1) Synergids (2) Antipodals (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Egg cell MAJOR TEST SERIES COURSE_PHASE - 1 9610ZMD800101250010 MAJOR TEST SERIES COURSE_PHASE - 1 9610ZMD800101250010